AIIMS 2012

If the earth stops moving around its polar axis then what will be effect on body placed at south axis?

1.  Remain same
2.  Increase
3.  Decrease but now zero
4.  Decrease zero

In air, the value of the total electric flux emitted from unit positive charge is

1. ε₀
_2.(ε₀)^-1
^3.(4πε₀)^-1
^4.4πε₀

A rod AB is 1 m long. The temperature of its one end A is maintained at 100 °C and other end B at 10 °C, the temperature at a distance of 60 cm from point B is
1.  64 °C
2.  36 °C
3.  46 °C
4.  72 °C

In designing, a beam for its use to support a lead. The depression at centre is proportional to (where, Yis Young’s modulus)

1. Y²
^2.Y
3.

A balloon is filled at 27 °C and 1 atm pressure by 500 m³. He, At -3 °C and 0.5 atm pressure, the volume of He will be

1. 700 m³
^2.900 m³
^3.₁₀₀₀ m³
^4.500 m³

The particle of mass 50 kg is at rest. The work done to accelerates it by 20 m/s in 10 s is

1.  10³ J

2.  10⁴ J

3.  2×10³ J

4.  4×10³ J

The moment of inertia of a circular loop of radius R, at a distance of R/2 around a rotating axis parallel to horizontal diameter of loop is

1. MR²

^2.

MR²

^3.2 MR²

^4.

MR²

The ratio of radius of two bubbles is 2: 1. What is the ratio excess pressure inside them?

1.  1: 2

2.  1: 4

3.  2: 1

4.  4: 1

In the capacitor of capacitance C, charge Q and energy W is stored. If charge is increases upto 2Q, the energy stored will be

1.

3. 2W

4. 4W

10.

The unit of thermal conductivity is

1. Wm^-1K^-1

^2.JK^-1

^3.Wmk

4. JK

11.

Photon and electron are given same energy (10^‑20J). Wavelength associated with photon and electron are λ_p and λ_e, the correct statement will be

1. λ_p > λ_e

_2.λ_p < λ_e

_3.λ_p = λ_e

_4.

= c

12.

The half life of radioactive elements is 600 yr the fraction of sample that would remain after 3000 yr is

1.  1/2

2.  1/16

3.  1/8

4.  1/32

13.

A particle moves along with x-axis. The position x os particles with respect to time t from origin given by x = b₀ + b₁t + b₂t². The acceletration of particle is

1. b₀

_2.b₁

_3.b₂

_4.2b₂

14.

Root mean square speed of the molecules of ideal gas is v. If pressure is increased two times at constant temperature, then the rms speed will become

1.

2.  v

3.  2v

4.  4v

15.

1 mol of gas occupies a volume of 200 mL at 100 mm pressure. What is the volume occupied by two moles of gas at 400 mm pressure and at same temperature?

1.  50 mL

2.  100 mL

3.  200 mL

4.  400 mL

16.

A charged particle travels along a straight line with a speed v in a region where both electric foeld E and magnetic field B are present. If follows that

1.  |E| = v |B| and two fields are parallel

2.  |E| = v |B| and two fields are perpendicular

3.  |B| = v |E| and two fields are parallel

4.  |B| = v |E| and two fields are perpendicular

17.

What will be the wave velocity, if the radar gives 54 waves/min and wavelength of the given wave is 10 m?

1.  4 m/s

2.  6 m/s

3.  9 m/s

4.  5 m/s

18.

A transformer of 100% efficiency has 200 turns in the primary coil and 40000 turns in secondary coil. It is connected to a 220 V main supply and secondary feeds to a 100 kΩ resistance. The potential difference per turn is

1.  1.1 V

2.  25 V

3.  18 V

4.  11 V

19.

A thin convex lens of refractive index 1.5 has 20 cm focal length in air. If the lens is completely immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6, its focal length will be

1.  -160 cm

2.  - 100 cm

3. + 10 cm

4.  +100 cm

20.

SI unit of permittivity is

1.  C²m²N²
2.  C²m^-2N^-1
3.  C²m²N^-1
4.  C^-1m²N^-2

21.

A spherical drop of capacitance 1μF is broken into eight drops of equal radius. Then, the capacitance of each small drop is
1.

A simple harmonic oscillator consists of a particle of mass m, and an ideal spring with spring constantk. The particle oscillates with a time period T. The spring is cut into two equal parts, Of one part oscillates with the same particles, the time period will

1. 2T

2.

T

3.

23.

The coefficient of viscosity for hot air is

1.  greater than the coefficient of viscosity for cold air
2.  smaller than the coefficient of viscosity for cold air
3.  same than the coefficient of viscosity for cold air
4.  increase than the coefficient of viscosity for cold air

24.

An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total (kinetic + potential) energyE₀. Its potential energy is
1. -E₀

_2.1.5E₀

_3.2E₀

4. E₀

25.

A thin hollow sphere of mass m is completely filled with a liquid of mass m. When the sphere rolls with a velocity v, kinetic energy of the system is (neglect friction)

1.

mv²

2. mv²

3.

mv²

4.

mv²

26.

A non-conducting body floats in a liquid at 20 °C with

of its volume immersed in the liquid. When liquid temperature is increased to 100 °C,

of body’s volume is immersed in the liquid. Then the coefficient of real expansion of the liquid is (neglecting the expansion of container of the liquid)

1. 15.6×10^-4oC^-1

^2.156×10^-4oC^-1

3. 1.56×10^-4oC^-1

4. 0.156×10^-4oC^-1

27.

Two slabs A and B of different materials but of the same thickness are joined end to end to form a composite slab. The thermal conductivities of A and B are K₁ and K₂ respectively. A steady temperature difference of 12 °C is maintained across the composite slab. If K₁ =

, the temperature difference across slabs A is

1.  4 °C

2.  6 °C

3.  8 °C

4.  10 °C

28.

In short wave communication, waves of which of following frequencies will be reflected back by the ionospheric layer having electron density 10¹¹ per m³?

1.  2 MHz

2.  10 MHz

3.  12 MHz

4.  18 MHz

29.

A body of mass 4 kg moving with velocity 12 m/s collides with another body of mass 6 kg at rest. If two bodies stick together after collision, then the loss of kinetic energy of system is

1.  zero

2.  288 J

3.  172.8 J

4.  144 J

30.

A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in 10 s. Then the coefficient of friction is

1.  0.01

2.  0.02

3.  0.03

4.  0.06

31.

A body of mass 0.25 kg is projected with muzzle velocity 100 m/s from a tank of mass 100 kg. What is the recoil velocity of the tank?

1.  5 m/s

2.  25 m/s

3.  0.5 m/s

4.  0.25 m/s

32.

A rocket with a lift off mass 3.5×10⁴ kg is blast upward with an initial acceleration of 10 m/s². Then, the initial thrust of the blasts is

1.  1.75×10⁵ N

2.  3.5×10⁵ N

3.  7.0×10⁵ N

4.  14.0 ×10⁵ N

33.

A step-down transformer is used on a 1000 V line to deliver 20 A at 120 V at the secondary coil. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn from the line is

1.  3 A

2.  30 A

3.  0.3 A

4.  2.4 A

34.

What kV potential is to be applied on X-ray tube so that minimum wavelength of emitted X-rays may be 1 Å (h = 6.6×10^-34 J-s)

1.  12.42 kV
2.  12.84 kV
3.  11.98 kV
4.  10.78 kV

35.

Hydrogen atom excites energy level from fundamental state to n =3. Number of spectrum lines according to Bohr is

1.  4

2.  3

3.  1

4.  2

36.

A black body at a temperature of 2600 K has the wavelength corresponding to maximum emission 1200Å. Assuming the moon to be perfectly black body the temperature of the moon, if the wavelength corresponding to maximum emission if 5000 Å is

1.  7800 K
2.  6240 K
3.  5240 K
4.  3640 K

37.

The heat required to increase the temperature of 4 moles of a monoatomic ideal gas from 273 K to 473 K at constant volume is

1.  200 R
2.  400 R
3.  800 R
4.  1200 R

38.

A solid sphere rolls without slipping on the roof. The ratio of its rotational kinetic energy and its total kinetic energy is

1.  2/5
2.  4/5
3.  2/7
4.  3/7

39.

6Ω and 12Ω resistors are connected in parallel. This combination is connected in series with a 10 V battery and 6Ω resistor. What is the potential difference between the terminals of the 12Ω resistor?

1.  4 V

2.  16 V

3.  2

4.  8 V

40.

Charge passing through a conductor of cross section area A = 0.3m² is given by q = 3t² +5t+2 in coulomb, where t is in second. What is the value of drift velocity at t = 2s? (Given, n = 2×10²⁵/m³)

1.  0.77×10^-5 m/s

2.  1.77×10^-5 m/s

3.  2.08×10^-5 m/s

4.  0.57×10^-5 m/s

41.

Assertion When a body is dropped or thrown horizontally from the same height, it would reach the ground at the same time.
Reason Horizontal velocity has no effect on the vertical direction.

42.

Assertion Two similar trains are moving along the equatorial line with the same speed but in opposite direction. They will exert equal pressure on the rails.
Reason In uniform circular motion the magnitude of acceleration remains constant but the direction continuously changes.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.

43.

Assertion A table cloth can be pulled from a table without disloading the dishes.
Reason To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

44.

Assertion Soft steel can be made red hot by continued hammering on it, but hard steel cannot.
Reason Energy transfer in case of soft is large as in hard steel.

45.

Assertion The center of mass of an electron and proton, when released moves faster towards proton.
Reason Proton is heavier than the electron.

46.

Assertion A planet moves faster, when it is closer to the sun in its orbit and vice-versa.
Reason Orbital velocity in orbit of planet is constant.

47.

Assertion A large force is required to drawn apart normally two glass plates enclosing a thin water film.
Reason Water works as glue and sticks two glass plates.

48.

Assertion The water rises higher in a capillary tube of small diameter than in the capillary tube of large diameter.
Reason Height through which liquid rise in capillary tube inversely proportional to the the capillary tube.

49.

Assertion If the bob of a simple pendulum is kept in a horizontal electric field, its period of oscillation will remain same.

Reason If bob is charged and kept in horizontal electric field, then the time period will be decreased.

50.

Assertion A thermoelectric refrigerator is based on the Peltier effect.
Reason A thermocouple may be used as a radiation detector.

51.

Assertion The pattern and position of fringes always remain same even after the introduction of transparent medium in a path of one of the slit.
Reason The central fringe is bright or dark depends upon the initial phase difference between the two coherence sources.

52.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Balmer series lies in the visible region of electromagnetic spectrum.
Reason (R):	\(\frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left(\frac{1}{2^{2}}-\frac{1}{n^{2}}\right)\) where n=3,4,5,...

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

53.

Assertion Corpuscular theory fails in explaining the velocities of light in air and water.
Reason According to corpuscular theory, light should travel faster in denser media than in rarer media.

54.

Assertion Susceptibility is defined as the ratio of intensity of magnetisation I to magnetic intensity H.
Reason Greater the value of susceptibility smaller the value of intensity of magnetisation I.

55.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	It is not possible to have interference between the waves produced by two violins.
Reason (R):	For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves must remain constant.Given below are two statements.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

56.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	A metallic shield in the form of a hollow shell can be constructed to block an electric field.
Statement II:	The electric field is zero at every point within a hollow spherical shield.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
3.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

57.

Assertion The molecules of a monoatomic gas have three degrees of freedom.
Reason The molecules of a diatomic gas have five degrees of freedom.

58.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	To observe the diffraction of light the size of the obstacle/aperture should be of the order of 10^-7 m.
Reason (R):	10^-7 m is the order of the wavelength of visible light.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

59.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	The resolving power of a telescope is more if the diameter of the objective lens is more.
Reason (R):	An objective lens of large diameter collects more light.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

60.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	A beam of charged particles is employed in the treatment of cancer.
Reason (R):	Charged particles on passing through a material medium lose their energy by causing ionization of the atoms along their path.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

61.

Which one of the following enzymes is present in animals like cow, buffaloes etc., to digest compounds like paper, cloth etc?

1.  Ureaze

2.  Cellulase

3.  Silicones

4.  Sucrase

62.

Which one of the following is employed as antihistamine?

1.  Omeprazole

2.  Chloramphenicol

3.  Diphenyl hydramine

4.  Northindrone

63.

Dunston’s test is used for identification of

1.  glycerol
2.  acetone
3.  glycol
4.  ethanol

64.

Which one of the following structures represents the neoprene polymer?
1.

65.

Etherates are

1.  ethers

2.  solution in ether

3.  complexes of ethers with Lewis acid

4.  complexes of ethers with Lewis base

66.

1 C electricity deposits

1.  10.8 g of Ag

2.  electrochemical equivalent of Ag

3.  half of electrochemical equivalent of Ag

4.  96500 g of Ag

67.

The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the Cu²⁺/Cu couples is:
[Given, \(E_{Cu^{2+}/Cu}^{o}\) = 0.34 V; K_sp Cu(OH)₂ = 1×10^-19]

1.	0.34 V	2.	-0.34 V
3.	0.22 V	4.	-0.22 V

68. Freon (refrigerant gas) can be represented by:
1. \(CF_2=CF_2\)
2. \(CH_2F_2\)
3. \(CCl_2F_2\)
4. \(CF_4\)

69.

Of the following, the oxime of which shows geometrical isomerism is

1.  acetone
2.  diethyel ketone
3.  formaldehyde
4.  benzaldehyde

70.

Which has the highest nucleophilicity?

1. F^-

2. OH^-

3. —CH₃

4. —NH₂

71.

What is the correct relationship between the PHs of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide (pH₁), sodium sulphide (pH₂) sodium selenide (pH₃) and sodium telluride (pH₄)?

1. pH₁ > pH₂ = pH₃ > pH₄

2. pH₁ < pH₂ < pH₃ < pH₄

3. pH₁ < pH₂ < pH₃ = pH₄

4. pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ > pH₄

72.

The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 80 and 60 torr respectively. The total vapour pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 moles of P and 2 moles of Q would be:

1.	140 torr	2.	20 torr
3.	68 torr	4.	72 torr

73. The most acidic compound among the following is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

74.

A reaction occurs spontaneously if:

1. TΔS < ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are + ve
2. TΔS > ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are + ve
3. TΔS = ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are + ve
4. TΔS > ΔH and ΔH is +ve and ΔS is - ve

75.

The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colourless:
(Atomic number of Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 22, Mn=25)
1. Sc³⁺
2. Fe²⁺

3. Ti³⁺

4. Mn²⁺

76.

Four successive members of the first-row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Choose the element that is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy.

1.	Vanadium (Z = 23)	2.	Chromium (Z = 24)
3.	Iron (Z = 26)	4.	Manganese (Z = 25)

77.

Which one of the following alkenes will react faster with H₂ under catalytic hydrogenation conditions?
(R = Alkyl Substituent)

1.

78.

For a first order reaction A→B, the reaction rate at reactant concentration of 0.01M is found to be
2.0×10^-5mol L^-1s^-1. The half-life period of the reaction is:

1.	220 s	2.	30 s
3.	300 s	4.	347 s

79.

Which one of the following is the electron deficiens molecules?

1. B2H6
2. C2H6
3. PH3
4. SiH4

80.

Which one of the following would have a permanent dipole moment?

1. BF₃
2. SiF₄
3. SF₄
4. XeF₄

81.

Which one of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution exclusively by S_N1 mechanism?
1. Benzyl chloride

2. Ethyl chloride

3. Chlorobenzene

4. Isopropyl chloride

82.

If the concentration of a reactant B is doubled and the rate of reaction between the reactants A and B decreases by a factor of 4, what is the order of this reaction with respect to reactant B?
1. -1
2. -2
3. 1
4. 2

83.

In a face centred cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells?

1.  8
2.  4
3.  2
4.  6

84.

A solution of urea (molar mass = \(60 \text{ g mol}^{-1}\)) boils at 100.18 °C at atmospheric pressure. If K_fand K_bfor water are 1.86 and 0.512 K kg mol^-1 respectively, the above solution will freeze at:

1.	-6.54 °C	2.	6.54 °C
3.	0.654 °C	4.	-0.654 °C

85.

Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex as well as is diamagnetic in behaviour?
(Atomic number of Zn = 30, Cr = 24, Co= 27, Ni = 28)
1. [Zn(NH₃)₆]²⁺

2. [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺

3. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺

4. [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺

86.

Electroytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives

1.  aniline
2.  nitrosobenzene
3.  N-phenylhydroxylamine
4.  p-hydroxyaniline

87. Paramagnetic behavior is expected to exhibit by among the following:
1. CO₂
2. SO₂
3. ClO₂
4. SiO₂

88.

The correct order of acid strength is

1. HClO < HClO₂ < HClO₃ < HClO₄
_2.HClO₄< HClO< HClO₂ < HClO₃
3. HClO₂ < HClO₃< HClO₄< HClO
4. HClO₄< HClO₃< HClO₂< HClO

89.

In the equation,
4M + 8CN^- +2H₂O +O₂→4[M(CN)₂]^-+4OH^-
Where [M(CN)₂]^- is a soluble complex. Identify the metal M.

1. Copper
2. Iron
3. Gold
4. Zinc

90.

The decomposition of a certain mass of CaCO₃ gave 11.2 dm³ of CO₂ gas at STP.
The mass of KOH required to completely neutralise the gas is:

1. 56 g
2. 28 g
3. 42 g
4. 20 g

91.

Calculate the wavelength of light required to break the bond between two chlorine atoms in a chlorine molecule. The Cl-Cl bond energy is 243 kJ mol^-1 (h = 6.6×10^-34 Js; c = 3×108 ms^-1, Avogadro’s number = 6.02×10^-23 mole^-1)

1.  4.91×10^-7 m
2.  4.11×10^-6 m
3.  8.81×10^-31 m
4.  6.26×10^-21 m

92.

The pressure and temperature of 4 dm³ of carbon dioxide gas are doubled. Then volume of carbon dioxide would be

1. 2 dm³
^2.3 dm³
3. 4 dm³
4. 8 dm³

93.

Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4, and 5 are mixed in a vessel. Calculate the concentration of H⁺ion in the final mixture.
1. 1.11×10^-4 M
2. 3.7×10^-4 M

3. 3.7×10^-3 M

4. 1.11×10^-3 M

94.

Purple of cassius is a/an

1. colloidal sol of gold
2. colloidal sol of silver
3. colloidal sol of platinum
4. oxyacid of gold

95.

Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs to which of the following categories?

1. A coenzyme
2. A hormone
3. An enzyme
4. An antibiotic

96.

Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?

1. Uracil
2. Cytosine
3. Guanine
4. Thymine

97.

Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for the separation of amines?

1. Curtius reaction
2. Wurtz reaction
3. Hofmann method
4. Hinsberg method

98.

The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH and p-toluidine form:
1.

99.

Pyruvic acid is obtained by

1. oxidation of acetaldehyde cyanohydrin
2. oxidation of formaldehyde cyanohydrin
3. oxidation of acetone cyanohydrin
4. None of the above

100.

Rate of the reaction

Is fastest when Z is

1. Cl
2. NH₂
3. OC₂H₅
4. OCOCH₃

101.

Assertion Mercury vapour is shining silvery appearance.
Reason Mercury is a metal with shining silvery appearance.

102.

Assertion F₂ has high reactivity.
Reason F-F bond has low bond dissociation enthalpy.

103.

Assertion BF₃ molecule is planar but NF₃ is pyramidal.
Reason N atom is smaller than B.

104.

Assertion The free gaseous Cr atom has six unpaired electrons,
Reason Half-filled s-orbital has greater stability.

105.

Assertion Meniscus of a liquid disappears at critical temperature.
Reason Density of a liquid and its gaseous phase become equal at the critical temperature.

106.

Assertion Molar entropy of vaporisation of water is different from ethanol.
Reason Water is more polar than ethanol.

107.

Assertion For the reaction;
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) 2NH₃(g)
Unit of K_c = L² mol ^-2
Reason Equilibrium constant,
K_c=

108.

Assertion Small quantity of soap is used to prepare a stable emulsion.
Reason Soap lowers the interfacial tension between oil and water.

109.

Assertion Both o-hydroxy benzaldehyde and p-hydroxy benzaldehyde have same molecular weight and show H-bonding.
Reason Melting point of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde is more.

110.

Assertion Precipitation of soap is made by the addition of salt (NaCl).
Reason Presence of common ion suppresses the dissociation of weak acid.

111.

Assertion van-Arkel method is used to prepare samples of some metals.
Reason It involves reaction of CO with metals to form volatile carbonyls which decompose on heating to give pure metal.

112.

Assertion EDTA is a hexadentate ligand.
Reason Denticity of a ligand is given by number of lone pairs donated to central atom by a ligand.

113.

Assertion Sodium carbonate extract of a salt containing sulphide ions gives a violet colour with appropriate reagent.
Reason The reagent sodium nitroprusside gives violet colour due to the formation of sodium thionitroprusside.

114.

Assertion H₂O₂ under goes disproportionation on heating.
Reason It gives H₂O and O₂ on heating.

115.

Assertion IE₁ of nitrogen is lower than IE₁ of oxygen.
Reason Across a period effective nuclear charge decreases.

116.

Assertion The term anomers of glucose refers to isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-1).
Reason Anomers of glucose are cyclic diastereomers differ in configuration at C-1 existing in two forms α- and β-respectively.

117.

Assertion The presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic substitution reactions in aryl halides.
Reason The intermediate carbanion is stabilised due to the presence of nitro group.

118.

Assertion Alkyl benzene is not prepared by Friedel-Craft’s alkylation of benzene.
Reason Alkyl halides are less reactive than acyl halides.

119.

Assertion Benzyl bromide when kept in acetone water produces benzyl alcohol.
Reason The reaction follows S_N2 mechanism.

120.

Assertion Isobutanal does not give iodoform test.
Reason It does not have α–hydrogen.

121.

Energy flow in an ecosystem is

1.  unidirectional
2.  bidirectional
3.  multi-directional
4.  All of these

122.

Who proposed a five-kingdom classification and named kingdoms as Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia?

1.  Herbert Copeland
2.  RH Whittaker
3.  Carl Woese
4.  Carolus Linnaeus

123.

Which of the following organisms completely lack cell wall, they are the smallest living cells known and can survive without oxygen?

1.  Mycoplasma
2.  Euglenoids
3.  Slime moulds
4. All of these

124.

What is the correct order of the stages of cellular respiration?

1. Krebs’ cycle electron—transport—chain glycolysis
2. electron transport chain— Krebs’ cycle— glycolysis
3. Glycolysis—Krebs’ cycle— electron transport chain
4..Glycolysis— electron transport chain— Krebs’ cycle

125.

A mixture containing DNA fragments, a, b, c and d with molecular weights of a + b = c, a > b and d > c, was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The positions of these fragments from cathode to anode sides of the gel would be

1. d, c, a, b
2. aa, b, c, d
3. c, b, a, d
4. b, a, d, c

126.

Which of the following DNA sequences qualifies to be designated as a palindrome?

1. 5’ – GACCAG – 3’ in one strand

2. 3’ – GACCAG – 5’ in one strand

3. 5’ – GACCAG – 3 ’3’ CTGGTC – 5’

4. 5’ – AGCGCT – 3’-3’ TCGCGA-5’

127.

IUCN stands for

1. Indian Union for Conservation of Nature
2. International Union for Conservation of Nature
3. Indian Union for Chemical Nomenclature
4. International Union for Conservation of Nutrients

128.

Tendrils in plants are an example of

1. convergent evolution
2. radiation
3. divergent evolution
4. co-evolution

129.

Haemoglobin is

1. an oxygen carrier in human blood
2. a protein used as food supplement
3. an oxygen scavenger in root nodules
4. a plant protein with high lysine content

130.

Stomatal opening is affected by

1. nitrogen concentration, carbon dioxide concentration and light
2. carbon dioxide concentration, temperature and light
3. nitrogen concentration, light and temperature
4. carbon dioxide concentration, nitrogen concentration and temperature

131.

Taxonomic hierarchy refers to

1. step-wise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals
2. a group of senior taxoinomists, who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals
3. a list of botanists or zoologists, who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group
4. classification of a species based on fossil record

132.

Which of the following induces parturition?

1. Vasopressin
2. Oxytocin
3. GH
4. TSH

133.

Excess carbohydrates and proteins are stored in the body as

1. amino acids
2. fats
3. starch
4. monosaccharides

134.

Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are

1. bacteria related diseases
2. congential disorders
3. pollutant-induced disorders
4. virus-related diseases

135.

Which one of the following pairs in not correctly matched?

1. Vitamin-B₂—Pernicious anaemia
2. Vitamin-B₆— Anemia
3. Vitamin-B₁— Beri-Beri
4. Vitamin-B₃— Pellagra

136.

The exchange of segments of non-sister chromatids between chromosomes of a homologous pair termed as

1. transformation
2. translocation
3. crossing over
4. chromosomal aberration

137.

Okazaki is known for his contribution to the understanding of

1. transcription
2. translation
3. DNA replication
4. mutation

138.

The beginning of understanding genetic transformation in bacteria was made by

1. Frederick Griffith
2. Hershey and Chase
3. Watson and Crick
4. TH Morgan

139.

The source of taq polymerase used in PCR is a

1. thermophilic fungus
2. mesophilic fungus
3. thermophilc bacterium
4. halophilic bacterium

140.

A pea plant parent having violet-coloured flowers with unknown genotype was crossed with a plant having white-coloured flowers. In the progeny, 50% of the flowers were violet and 50% were white. The genotypic constitution of the parent having violet-coloured flowers was

1. homozygous
2. merozygous
3. heterozygous
4. hemizygous

141.

If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 45%, the amount of guanine in this DNA will be

1. 22.5%
2. 27.5%
3. 45%
4. 55%

142.

Typhoid fever is caused by a species of

1. Streptococcus
2. Staphylococcus
3. Salmonella
4. Mycobacterium

143.

HIV is a member of a group of viruses called

1. bacteriophages
2. geminiviruses
3. lysogenic viruses
4. retroviruses

144.

The number of linkage group(s) present in Escherichia coli is

1. one
2. two
3. four
4. seven

145.

Natural cytokinins are synthesized in tissue that are

1. senescent
2. dividing rapidly
3. storing food material
4. differentiating

146.

Resemblance of one organism to another for protection and hiding is

1. mimicry
2. predation
3. adaptation
4. camouflage

147.

Spirochaetes is/are

1. a class of insects
2. a class of viruses
3. bacteria
4. fungi

148.

The metachromatic granules are

1. present in plants cell at metaphase stage
2. inclusion bodies in bacteria
3. produced in insects during metamorphosis
4. chromatophores in animal’s skin

149.

Clamp connection is found in

1. Basidiomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Saccharomycetes
4. Haplomycetes

150.

AUG codes for

1. valine
2. histidine
3. phenylalanine
4. methionine

151.

Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane was given by

1. Robertson
2. Robert Hooke
3. Singer and Nicholson
4. Gorter and Grendel

152.

Cell respiration is carried out by

1. ribosome
2. mitochondria
3. chloroplast
4. Golgi bodies

153.

In the lacoperon model, lactose molecules function as

1. inducers, which bind with the operator gene
2. repressors, which bind with the operator gene
3. inducers, which bind with the repressor protein
4. corepressors, which bind with repressors protein

154.

A recessive mutant is one which is

1. not expressed
2. rarely expressed
3. expressed only in homozygous and hemizygous state
4. expressed only in heterozygous state

155.

Humoral immunity system is mediated by

1. B-cells
2. T-cells
3. NK-cell
4. plasma cells

156.

It two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are crossed, 75% of the flowers are res and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of the parents having red coloured flowers will be

1. both homozygous
2. one homozygous and other heterozygous
3. both heterozygous
4. both hemizygous

157.

If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a double stranded DNA is 60%, the amount of guanine in this DNA will be

1. 15%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 40%

158.

Which protein products of the following Bt toxin genes cry I Ac and cry II Ab are responsible for controlling

1. bollworm
2. roundworm
3. moth
4. fruit fly

159.

In a flowering plant, the pollen tube first arrives in

1. egg
2. an antipodal cell
3. a synergid
4. central cell

160.

Assertion Only a single functional female gamete is formed from each primary oocyte cell.
Reason Meiosis in each primary as oocyte gives rise to only one cell, which functions ovum.

161.

Assertion Cytochrome oxidase enzyme contain copper.
Reason Cyanide combines with the copper of cytochrome oxidase and prevents O₂ combining with it.

162.

Assertion Recognition site should be preferably single and responsive to commonly used restriction enzyme.
Reason In pBR322 alien DNA is ligated generally in the area of Bam HI site of tetracycline resistance gene.

163.

Assertion Generally, a woman does not conceive during lactation period.
Reason The hormone prolactin initiates and maintain lactation in a woman.

164.

Assertion Allelopathy is a form of ammensalism that occurs in plants.
Reason Association of rooting plants with fungal hyphae is an important example ammensalism.

165.

Assertion Bats and whales are classified as mammals.
Reason Bats and whales have four chambered heart.

166.

Assertion Histamine is related with allergic and inflammatory reactions.
Reason Histamine is a vasodilator.

167.

Assertion For a recipient to receive blood from a donor, the recipient’s plasma must not have an antibody, to cause the donor’s cells to agglutinate.
Reason The possibility of blood clumping does not depend on anti A and anti B antibody and blood type.

168.

Assertion Monocot stem has collateral open vascular bundle.
Reason Open vascular bundle is without vascular cambium.

169.

Assertion Presence of flavin nucleotide is essential for the activity of some enzymes.
Reason Flavin nucleotide is an activator of these enzymes.

170.

Assertion Due to excessive use of fertilizers, the available water to the plants becomes hypotonic in relation to cell sap.
Reason The water molecules as a result diffuse out of the cells due to endosmosis.

171.

Assertion The nuclear envelope acts as an interface between the genetic component of the cell and the cytoplasm.
Reason It thus protects DNA against the mutagenic effect of cytoplasmic enzyme.

172.

Assertion Waxy and cutin coating on plant parts reduce the transpiration.
Reason These adaptations are found in xerophytes.

173.

Assertion Light is a very important factor in transpiration.
Reason It induces stomatal opening and darkness closing. Therefore, transpiration increases in light and decreases in dark.

174.

Assertion Mitochondria help in photosynthesis.
Reason Mitochondria have enzymes for dark reaction.

175.

Assertion Aflatoxins are produced by Aspergillus flowers.
Reason These toxins are useful to mankind.

176.

Assertion Histones are basic protein of major importance in packaging of eukaryotic DNA. DNA and histone comprise chromatin forming bulk of eukaryotic chromosome.
Reason Histones are five major types H₁, H₂A, H₂B, H₃ and H₄.

177.

Assertion Photosynthetically C₄ plants are less efficient than C₃ plants.
Reason The operation of C₄ pathway required the involvement of only bundle sheath cells.

178.

Assertion λ SD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.
Reason Both these drugs suppress brain function.

179.

Assertion Organ transplantation patients are given immunisppressive drugs.
Reason Transplanted tissue has antigens, which stimulate the specific immune response of the recipient.

180.

Assertion Person suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood cloting factor VIII.
Reason Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration.

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