Physics - Section A
1. The magnetic potential energy, when a magnetic bar of magnetic moment
\(\overrightarrow{M}\) is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field
\(\overrightarrow{B}\) is:
1.
\(\frac{-mB}{2}\)
2. zero
3.
\(-mB\)
4.
\(mB\)
2. A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of \(10\) rpm. If the tension in the string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed is:
1. \(20\) rpm
2. \(40\) rpm
3. \(5\) rpm
4. \(10\) rpm
3. A metal cube of a side \(5~\text{cm}\) is charged with \(6~\text{μC.}\) The surface charge density on the cube is:
1. \(0.125\times10^{-3}~\text{C m}^{-2}\)
2. \(0.25\times10^{-3}~\text{C m}^{-2}\)
3. \(4\times10^{-3}~\text{C m}^{-2}\)
4. \(0.4\times10^{-3}~\text{C m}^{-2}\)
4. The incorrect relation for a diamagnetic material (all the symbols carry their usual meaning and \(\varepsilon\) is a small positive number) is:
1. \(\mu<\mu_{0}\)
2. \(0\leqslant\mu_{\mathrm{r}}<1\)
3. \(-1\leqslant\chi<0\)
4. \(1<\mu_{\mathrm{r}}<1+\varepsilon \)
5. An ideal fluid is flowing in a non-uniform cross-sectional tube
\(XY\) (as shown in the figure) from end
\(X\) to end
\(Y.\) If
\(K_1\) and
\(K_2\) are the kinetic energy per unit volume of the fluid at
\(X\) and
\(Y\) respectively, then the correct option is:
1.
\(K_1\text=K_2\)
2.
\({2K}_1\text={K}_2\)
3.
\({K}_1>{K}_2\)
4.
\({K}_1<{K}_2\)
6. The escape velocity for Earth is \(v.\) A planet having \(9\) times the mass of Earth and a radius, \(16\) times that of Earth, has the escape velocity of:
1. \(\frac{v}{3}\)
2. \(\frac{2v}{3}\)
3. \(\frac{3v}{4}\)
4. \(\frac{9v}{4}\)
7. An electron and an alpha particle are accelerated by the same potential difference. Let \(\lambda_\mathrm{e}\) and \(\lambda_\mathrm{\alpha}\) denote the de Broglie wavelengths of the electron and the alpha particle, respectively, then:
1. \(\lambda_{\mathrm{e}}>\lambda_{\alpha}\)
2. \(\lambda_{\mathrm{e}}=4\lambda_{\alpha}\)
3. \(\lambda_{\mathrm{e}}=\lambda_{\alpha}\)
4. \(\lambda_{\mathrm{e}}<\lambda_{\alpha}\)
8. An object moving along a horizontal \(x\text-\)direction with kinetic energy \(10~\text J\) is displaced through \(x\text=\left(3\hat{i}\right)m\) by the force \(\vec{{{F}}}=\left(-2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}\right)~\text N.\) The kinetic energy of the object at the end of the displacement \(x\) is:
1. \(10~\text J\)
2. \(16~\text J\)
3. \(4~\text J\)
4. \(6~\text J\)
9. An object falls from a height of \(10~\text m\) above the ground. After striking the ground it loses \(50\%\) of its kinetic energy. The height up to which the object can re-bounce from the ground is:
1. \(7.5~\text m\)
2. \(10~\text m\)
3. \(2.5~\text m\)
4. \(5~\text m\)
10. In the circuit shown below, the inductance
\(L\) is connected to a source. The current flowing in the circuit is
\({I=I_{0}\sin\omega t.}\) The voltage drop
\((V_L)\) across
\(L\) is:
1.
\(\omega L~I_0\sin\omega t\)
2.
\(\frac{{I}_0}{\omega{L}}\sin\omega t\)
3.
\(\frac{{I}_0}{\omega{L}}\cos\omega t\)
4.
\(\omega L~I_0\cos\omega t\)
11. A \(12~\text{pF}\) capacitor is connected to a \(50~\text V\) battery, the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor in \(\text{nJ}\) is:
1. \(15\)
2. \(7.5\)
3. \(0.3\)
4. \(150\)
12. A uniform wire of diameter d carries a current of \(100~\text{mA}\) when the mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire is \(v.\) For a wire of diameter \({\frac{\mathrm{d}}{2}}\) of the same material to carry a current of \(200~\text{mA},\) the mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire is:
1. \(4v\)
2. \(8v\)
3. \(v\)
4. \(2v\)
13. In an electrical circuit, the voltage is measured as \({V}=(200\pm4)\)volts and the current is measured as \({I}=(20\pm0.2)~\text A.\) The value of the resistance is:
1. \((10\pm4.2)~\Omega \)
2. \((10\pm0.3)~\Omega \)
3. \((10\pm0.1)~\Omega \)
4. \((10\pm0.8)~\Omega \)
14. A step-up transformer is connected to an AC mains supply of \(220~\text V\) to operate at \(11000~\text V, 88\) watt. The current in the secondary circuit, ignoring the power loss in the transformer, is:
1. \(8~\text{mA}\)
2. \(4~\text{mA}\)
3. \(0.4~\text{A}\)
4. \(4~\text{A}\)
15. A particle is moving along the \(x\text-\)axis with its position \((x)\) varying with time \((t)\) as \(x=\alpha t^{4}+\beta t^{2}+\gamma t+\delta.\) The ratio of its initial velocity to its initial acceleration, respectively, is:
1. \(2\alpha:\delta \)
2. \(\gamma:2\delta \)
3. \(4\alpha:\beta \)
4. \(\gamma:2\beta \)
16. The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass
\(5~\text{kg}\) about
\(XY\) is
\(5~\text m\) as shown in the figure. The radius of the sphere is
\(\frac{5x}{\sqrt{7}}~\text m,\)then the value of
\(x\) is:
1.
\(5\)
2.
\(\sqrt{2}\)
3.
\(\sqrt{3}\)
4.
\(\sqrt{5}\)
17. 
The
\(I\text-V\) characteristics shown above are exhibited by a:
1. light emitting diode
2. zener diode
3. photodiode
4. solar cell
18. The magnetic moment and moment of inertia of a magnetic needle as shown are, respectively,
\(1.0\times10^{-2}~\text{A m}^{2}\text{and}~\frac{10^{-6}}{\pi^{2}}~\text{kg m}^{2}.\) If it completes
\(10\) oscillations in
\(10~\text s,\) the magnitude of the magnetic field is:
1.
\(0.4~\text T\)
2.
\(4~\text T\)
3.
\(0.4~\text{mT}\)
4.
\(4~\text{mT}\)
19. The capacitance of a capacitor with charge \(q\) and a potential difference \(V\) depends on:
1. both \(q\) and \(V\)
2. the geometry of the capacitor
3. \(q\) only
4. \(V\) only
20. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
Image formation needs regular reflection and/or refraction. |
| Statement II: |
The variety in colour of objects we see around us is due to the constituent colours of the light incident on them. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
| 1. |
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. |
| 2. |
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. |
| 3. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. |
| 4. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. |
21. A uniform metal wire of length \(l\) has \(10~\Omega \) resistance. Now this wire is stretched to a length \(2~l\) and then bent to form a perfect circle. The equivalent resistance across any arbitrary diameter of that circle is:
1. \(10~\Omega \)
2. \(5~\Omega \)
3. \(40~\Omega \)
4. \(20~\Omega \)
22. The spectral series which corresponds to the electronic transition from the levels \(\mathrm{n}_{2}=5,6,\ldots \) to the level \(\mathrm{n}_{1}=4\mathrm~\) is:
1. Pfund series
2. Brackett series
3. Lyman series
4. Balmer series
23. Given below are two statements: One is labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as
Reason (R).
| Assertion (A): |
Houses made of concrete roofs overlaid with foam keep the room hotter during
summer.
|
| Reason (R): |
The layer of foam insulation prohibits heat transfer, as it contains air pockets.
|
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| 1. |
(A) is true but (R) is false. |
| 2. |
(A) is false but (R) is true. |
| 3. |
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A). |
| 4. |
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (R). |
24. A particle executing simple harmonic motion with amplitude \(A\) has the same potential and kinetic energies at the displacement:
1. \(2\sqrt{A}\)
2. \(\frac{A}{2}\)
3. \(\frac{\mathrm{A}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
4. \(A\sqrt{2}\)
25. Two slits in Young's double slit experiment are \(1.5~\text{mm}\) apart and the screen is placed at a distance of \(1 ~\text m\) from the slits. If the wavelength of light used is \(600\times10^{-9}~\text {m}\) then the fringe separation is:
1. \(4\times10^{-5}~\text m\)
2. \(9\times10^{-8}~\text m\)
3. \(4\times10^{-7}~\text m\)
4. \(4\times10^{-4}~\text m\)
26. Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor because of its :
1. high thermal expansion coefficient
2. high specific heat capacity
3. low density
4. low boiling point
27. The pitch of an error-free screw gauge is \(1~\text{mm}\) and there are \(100\) divisions on the circular scale. While measuring the diameter of a thick wire, the pitch scale reads \(1~\text{mm}\) and \(63^\text{rd}\) division on the circular scale coincides with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is:
1. \(1.63 ~\text{cm}\)
2. \(0.163 ~\text{cm}\)
3. \(0.163~\text m\)
4. \(1.63 ~\text m\)
28. Let us consider two solenoids \(A\) and \(B,\) made from the same magnetic material of relative permeability \(\mu_{\mathrm{r}}\) and equal area of cross-section. Length of \(A\) is twice that of \(B\) and the number of turns per unit length in \(A\) is half that of \(B.\) The ratio of self-inductances of the two solenoids, \(L_A:L_B\) is:
1. \(1:2\)
2. \(2:1\)
3. \(8:1\)
4. \(1:8\)
29. When the output of an OR gate is applied as input to a NOT gate, then the combination acts as a :
1. NAND gate
2. NOR gate
3. AND gate
4. OR gate
30. The interference pattern can be observed due to the superposition of the following waves:
A. \(y=a\sin\omega t\)
B. \(y=a\sin2\omega t\)
C. \(y=a\sin\left(\omega t-\phi\right)\)
D. \(y=a\sin3\omega t\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B and C
2. B and D
3. A and C
4. A and B
31. If \(\phi\) is the work function of photosensitive material in \(\text{eV}\) and light of wavelength of numerical value \(\lambda=\frac{{hc}}{{e}}\) metre, is incident on it with energy above its threshold value at an instant then the maximum kinetic energy of the photo-electron ejected by it at that instant (Take h-Plank's constant, c-velocity of light in free space) is (in SI units):
1. \({e}+2\phi \)
2. \(2{e}-\phi \)
3. \({e}-\phi \)
4. \({e}+\phi \)
32. The electromagnetic radiation which has the smallest wavelength is:
1. X-rays
2. Gamma rays
3. Ultraviolet rays
4. Microwaves
33. The equilibrium state of a thermodynamic system is described by:
\(A.\) Pressure
\(B.\) Total heat
\(C.\) Temperature
\(D.\) Volume
\(E.\) Work done
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. \(A,B\) and \(E\) only
2. \(B,C\) and \(D\) only
3. \(A,B\) and \(C\) only
4. \(A,C\) and \(D\) only
34. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure with their wavelengths of transitions. Then:
1.
\(\lambda_{3}>\lambda_{2},\lambda_{1}=2\lambda_{2}\)
2.
\(\lambda_{3}>\lambda_{2},\lambda_{1}=4\lambda_{2}\)
3.
\(\lambda_{1}>\lambda_{2},\lambda_{2}=2\lambda_{3}\)
4.
\(\lambda_{2}>\lambda_{1},\lambda_{2}=2\lambda_{3}\)
35. A box of mass \(5 ~\text{kg}\) is pulled by a cord, up along a frictionless plane inclined at \(30^\circ\) with the horizontal. The tension in the cord is \(30~\text N.\) The acceleration of the box is (Take g = \(10~\text{m s}^{-2}\)):
1. \(2~\text{m s}^{-2}\)
2. zero
3. \(0.1~\text{m s}^{-2}\)
4. \(1~\text{m s}^{-2}\)
Physics - Section B
36. If the ratio of relative permeability and relative permittivity of a uniform medium is
\(1 : 4.\) The ratio of the magnitudes of electric field intensity
\((E)\) to the magnetic field intensity
\((H)\) of an EM wave propagating in that medium is:
\(\left(\text{Given that}\sqrt{\frac{\mu_0}{\varepsilon_0}}=120\pi\right):\)
1.
\(30\pi:1\)
2.
\(1:120\pi\)
3.
\(60\pi:1\)
4.
\(120\pi:1\)
37. The value of the electric potential at a distance of \(9\) from the point charge \(4\times10^{-7}~\text C\) is:
\(\left[\mathrm{Given}\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_{0}}=9\times10^{9}~\text{N m}^{2}~\text{C}^{-2}\right]:\)
1. \(4\times10^2~\text V\)
2. \(44.4~\text V\)
3. \(4.4\times10^5~\text V\)
4. \(4\times10^4~\text V\)
38. The displacement of a traveling wave \(y=C\sin\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}({at}-x)\) where is time, \(x\) is distance and \(\lambda\) is the wavelength, all in S.I. units. Then the frequency of the wave is:
1. \(\frac{2\pi\lambda}{a}\)
2. \(\frac{2\pi a}{\lambda}\)
3. \(\frac{\lambda}{a}\)
4. \(\frac{a}{\lambda}\)
39. An object of mass
\(100 ~\text{kg}\) falls from point
\(A\) to
\(B\) as shown in the figure. The change in its weight, corrected to the nearest integer is (
\(R_E\) is radius of the earth):
1.
\(49~\text N\)
2.
\(89~\text N\)
3.
\(5~\text N\)
4.
\(10~\text N\)
40. The potential energy of a particle moving along the \(x\text-\)direction varies as \(\mathrm{V}=\frac{\mathrm{A}x^{2}}{\sqrt{x}+\mathrm{B}}.\)The dimensions of \(\frac{\mathrm{A}^2}{\mathrm{B}}\) are:
1. \([{M}^{3/2}{L}^{1/2}{T}^{-3}]\)
2. \([M^{1/2}LT^{-3}]\)
3. \([{M}^2{L}^{1/2}{T}^{-4}]\)
4. \([ML^{2}T^{-4}]\)
41. The two-dimensional motion of a particle, described by \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{r}}=\begin{pmatrix}\hat{i}+2\hat{j}\end{pmatrix} A\cos\omega t\) is a/ an:
A. parabolic path
B. elliptical path
C. periodic motion
D. simple harmonic motion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, C and D only
2. A, B, and C only
3. A, C and D only
4. C and D only
42. A beam of unpolarized light of intensity
\(I_0\) is passed through a polaroid
\(A,\) through another polaroid
\(B,\) oriented at
\(60^\circ\) and finally through another polaroid
\(C,\) oriented at
\(45^\circ\) relative to
\(B\) as shown. The intensity of emergent light is:
1.
\(\frac{{I}_0}{16}\)
2.
\(\frac{{I}_0}4\)
3.
\(\frac{{I}_0}2\)
4.
\(\frac{{I}_0}{32}\)
43. Select the correct statements among the following:
| A. |
slow neutrons can cause fission in \(U_{92}^{235}\) than fast neutrons. |
| B. |
\(\text{α-rays}\) are helium nuclei. |
| C. |
\(\text{β-rays}\) are fast-moving electrons or positrons. |
| D. |
\(\gamma-\text{rays}\) are electromagnetic radiations of wavelengths larger than X-rays. |
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. A, B and D only
3. A and B only
4. C and D only
44. Let \(\omega_{1},\omega_{2}\) and \(\omega_{3}\) be the angular speed of the second hand, minute hand, and hour hand of a smoothly running analog clock, respectively. If \(x_{1},x_{2}\) and \(x_{3}\) are their respective angular distance in \(1\) minute then the factor which remains constant \((k)\) is:
1. \(\frac{\omega_1}{x_1}\text=\frac{\omega_2}{x_2}\text=\frac{\omega_3}{x_3}\text={k}\)
2. \(\omega_{1}x_{1}\text=\omega_{2}x_{2}\text=\omega_{3}x_{3}\text={k}\)
3. \(\omega_{1}x_{1}^{2}\text=\omega_{2}x_{2}^{2}\text=\omega_{3}x_{3}^{2}\text={k}\)
4. \(\omega_{1}^{2}x_{1}\text=\omega_{2}^{2}x_{2}\text=\omega_{3}^{2}x_{3}\text={k}\)
45. The magnetic moment of an iron bar is \(M.\) It is now bent in such a way that it forms an arc section of a circle subtending an angle of \(60^\circ\) at the center. The magnetic moment of this arc section is:
1. \(\frac{3 M}{\pi}\)
2. \(\frac{4M}{\pi}\)
3. \(\frac{ M}{\pi}\)
4. \(\frac{2 M}{\pi}\)
46. The given circuit shows a uniform straight wire
\(A\) of
\(40 ~\text{cm}\) length fixed at both ends. In order to zero reading in the galvanometer
\(G,\) the free end of is to be placed from Bat:
1.
\(32~\text{cm}\)
2.
\(8~\text{cm}\)
3.
\(16~\text{cm}\)
4.
\(24~\text{cm}\)
47. According to the law of equipartition of energy, the number of vibrational modes of a polyatomic gas of constant \(\gamma=\frac{C_{\mathrm{p}}}{C_{\mathrm{v}}}\) is (where \(C_p\) and \(C_v\) are the specific heat capacities of the gas at constant pressure and constant volume, respectively):
1. \(\frac{4+3\gamma}{\gamma-1}\)
2. \(\frac{3+4\gamma}{\gamma-1}\)
3. \(\frac{4-3\gamma}{\gamma-1}\)
4. \(\frac{3-4\gamma}{\gamma-1}\)
48. The output
\(Y\) for the inputs
\(A\) and
\(B\) of the given logic circuit is:
1.
\(\mathrm{A}\cdot\mathrm{B}\)
2.
\(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\cdot\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
3.
\(\text{A+B}\)
4.
\(\overline{A}+\overline{B}\)
49. The amplitude of the charge oscillating in a circuit decreases exponentially as \(\mathrm{Q=Q_{0}e^{-Rt/2L},}\) where \({Q}_0\) is the charge at \({t}=0~\text{s}.\)The time at which charge amplitude decreases to \(0.50~{Q}_0\) is nearly:
\(\text{Given that} {R=1.5~\Omega,L=12~\text{mH},~ln(2)=0.693}\)
1. \(19.01~\text{ms}\)
2. \(11.09~\text{ms}\)
3. \(19.01~\text s\)
4. \(11.09~\text s\)
50. The steady-state current in the circuit shown below is:
1.
\(0.67~\text A\)
2.
\(1.5~\text A\)
3.
\(2~\text A\)
4.
\(1~\text A\)
Chemistry - Section A
51. The correct decreasing order of atomic radii (pm) of Li, Be, B and C is:
1. Be > Li > B > C
2. Li > Be > B > C
3. C > B > Be > Li
4. Li > C > Be > B
52. The following data is for a reaction between reactants A and B:
Rate
mol \(L^{-1}s^{-1}\) |
[A] |
[B] |
| \(2 \times10^{-3}\) |
0.1 M |
0.1 M |
| \(4 \times10^{-3}\) |
0.2 M |
0.1 M |
| \(1.6 \times10^{-2}\) |
0.2 M |
0.2 M |
The order of the reaction with respect to A and B, respectively are:
1. 1, 0
2. 0, 1
3. 1, 2
4. 2, 1
53. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I : |
Propene on treatment with diborane gives an addition product with the formula \(((CH_3)_2-CH)_3 -B\) |
| Statement II : |
Oxidation of \(((CH_3)_2-CH)_3 -B\) with hydrogen peroxide in presence of \(NaOH\) gives propan-2-ol. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
54. Baeyer's reagent is:
1. acidic potassium permanganate solution
2. acidic potassium dichromate solution
3. cold, dilute, aqueous solution of potassium permanganate
4. hot, concentrated solution of potassium permanganate
55. Which of the following molecules has "NON ZERO" dipole moment value?
| 1. |
\(\mathrm{CCl_4}\) |
2. |
\(\mathrm{HI}\) |
| 3. |
\(\mathrm{CO_2}\) |
4. |
\(\mathrm{BF}_3\) |
56. The major product X formed in the following reaction sequence is:
57. Which indicator is used in the titration of sodium hydroxide against oxalic acid and what is the colour change at the end point?
1. Phenolphthalein, pink to yellow
2. Alkaline \(\mathrm{KMnO_4}\), colourless to pink
3. Phenolphthalein, colourless to pink
4. Methyl orange, yellow to pinkish red colour
58. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I
(Atom / Molecule) |
|
List-II
(Property) |
| A. |
Nitrogen |
I. |
Paramagnetic |
| B. |
Fluorine molecule |
II. |
Most reactive element in group 18 |
| C. |
Oxygen molecule |
III. |
Element with highest ionisation enthalpy in group 15 |
| D. |
Xenon atom |
IV. |
Strongest oxidising agent |
Identify the correct answer from the option given below:
1. A- III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
59. From the following select the one which is not an example of corrosion.
1. Rusting of an iron object
2. Production of hydrogen by electrolysis of water
3. Tarnishing of silver
4. Development of green coating on copper and bronze ornaments
60. Which of the following pairs of ions will have same spin only magnetic moment values within the pair?
A. \(\mathrm{Zn ^{2+}, Ti ^{2+}}\)
B. \(\mathrm{Cr ^{2+}, Fe ^{2+}}\)
C. \(\mathrm{Ti ^{3+}, Cu ^{2+}}\)
D. \(\mathrm{V ^{2+}, Cu ^{+}}\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. C and D only
2. A and D only
3. A and B only
4. B and C only
61. At a given temperature and pressure, the equilibrium constant value for the equilibria are given below:
\(3A_2+B_2\rightleftharpoons 2A_3B, K_1\\ A_3B \rightleftharpoons \frac 3{2}A_2+\frac 1{2}B_2, K_2 \)
The relation between \(K_1\) and \(K_2\) is:
1. \(K^2_1=2K_2\)
2. \(K_2= \frac { K_1 }{2}\)
3. \(K_1=\frac 1{\sqrt K_2}\)
4. \(K_2=\frac 1{\sqrt K_1}\)
62. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their solubilities in chloroform:
\(\mathrm{NaCl, CH_3 OH, cyclohexane, CH_3CN}\)
1. \(\mathrm{NaCl< CH_3CN<CH_3 OH<Cyclohexane}\)
2. \(\mathrm{CH_3 OH<CH_3CN<NaCl<Cyclohexane}\)
3. \(\mathrm{NaCl< CH_3 OH<CH_3CN<Cyclohexane}\)
4. \(\mathrm{Cyclohexane< CH_3CN<CH_3 OH<NaCl}\)
63. Identify the incorrect statement about \(\mathrm{PCl_5}\).
1. \(\mathrm{PCl_5}\) possesses two different \(\mathrm{Cl-P-Cl}\) bond angles.
2. All five \(\mathrm{P-Cl}\) bonds are identical in length.
3. \(\mathrm{PCl_5}\) exhibits sp3d hybridisation.
4. \(\mathrm{PCl_5}\) consists of five \(\mathrm{P-Cl}\) (sigma) bonds.
64. Choose the correct statement for the work done in the expansion and heat absorbed or released when 5 litres of an ideal gas at 10 atmospheric pressure isothermally expands into vacuum until the volume is 15 litres:
1. Both the heat and work done will be greater than zero.
2. Heat absorbed will be less than zero and work done will be positive.
3. Work done will be zero and heat will also be zero.
4. Work done will be greater than zero and heat will remain zero.
65. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:
1. 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
2. 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
3. 3-ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
4. 1-ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
66. Which of the following set of ions act as oxidising agents?
1. \(\mathrm{Ce}^{4+} \) and \(\mathrm{Tb}^{4+}\)
2. \(\mathrm{La}^{3+} \) and \(\mathrm{Lu}^{3+}\)
3. \(\mathrm{Eu}^{2+} \) and \(\mathrm{Yb}^{2+}\)
4. \(\mathrm{Eu}^{2+} \) and \(\mathrm{Tb}^{4+}\)
67. Select the incorrect reaction among the following:
| 1. |
\(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COCl} \xrightarrow[\Delta]{\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}} \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}\) |
| 2. |
 |
| 3. |
\(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH} \xrightarrow[\text { (ii) } \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{O}^{\oplus}]{\text { (i) } \mathrm{KMnO}_{4}/\mathrm{OH^{-} }} \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}\) |
| 4. |
\(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH} \xrightarrow{\mathrm{CrO}_3-\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4} \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{COOH}\) |
68. The UV-visible absorption bands in the spectra of lanthanoid ions are 'X', probably because of the excitation of electrons involving 'Y'. The 'X' and 'Y', respectively, are:
1. Broad and f orbitals
2. Narrow and f orbitals
3. Broad and d and f orbitals
4. Narrow and d and f orbitals
69. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate ion is a/an :
1. hexadentate ligand
2. ambidentate ligand
3. monodentate ligand
4. bidentate ligand
70. The amount of glucose required to prepare 250 mL of \(\frac{M}{20}\) aqueous solution is:
(Molar mass of glucose: 180 g \(\mathrm{mol ^{-1}}\))
1. 2.25 g
2. 4.5 g
3. 0.44 g
4. 1.125 g
71. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
1. The acidic strength of HX (X=F, Cl, Br and I) follows the order: HF > HCI > HBr >HI
2. Fluorine exhibits - 1 oxidation state whereas other halogens exhibit +1, +3, +5 and +7 oxidation states also.
3. The enthalpy of dissociation of F2 is smaller than that of Cl2.
4. Fluorine is stronger oxidising agent than chlorine.
72. For the reaction in equilibrium
\(\mathrm{N_2(g) +3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g), \Delta H=-Q}\)
Reaction is favoured in forward direction by:
1. use of catalyst
2. decreasing concentration of \(\mathrm{N_2}\)
3. low pressure, high temperature and high concentration of ammonia
4. high pressure, low temperature and higher concentration of \(\mathrm{H_2}\)
74. Match List-I with List-II
|
List-I
(Block/group in periodic table) |
|
List-II
(Element) |
| A. |
Lanthanoid |
I. |
Ce |
| B. |
d-block element |
II. |
As |
| C. |
p-block element |
III. |
Cs |
| D. |
s-block element |
IV. |
Mn |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
3. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
75. Which of the following is not an ambidentate ligand?
1. \(\mathrm{C_2O^{2-}_4}\)
2. \(\mathrm{SCN}^-\)
3. \(\mathrm{NO^{-}_2}\)
4. \(\mathrm{CN}^-\)
76. The quantum numbers of four electrons are given below:
I. n=4; l=2; \(m_l\)=-2; s=-\(\frac1{2}\)
II. n=3; l=2; \(m_l\)=1; s=+\(\frac1{2}\)
III. n=4; l=1; \(m_l\)=0; s=+\(\frac1{2}\)
IV. n=3; l=1; \(m_l\)=-1; s=+\(\frac1{2}\)
The correct decreasing order of energy of these electrons is:
1. IV>II>III>I
2. I>III>II>IV
3. III>I>II>IV
4. I>II>III>IV
77. The major product C in the below-mentioned reaction is:
1. Propan-1-ol
2. Propan-2-ol
3. Propane
4. Propyne
78. The compound that does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction but gives a positive carbylamine test is:
1. aniline
2. pyridine
3. N-methylaniline
4. triethylamine
79. For an endothermic reaction:
A. \(q_p \) is negative.
B. \(\Delta _r H\) is positive.
C. \(\Delta _r H\) is negative.
D. \(q_p \) is positive.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B and D
2. C and D
3. A and B
4. A and C
80. 1.0 g of \(H_2\) has same number of molecules as in:
1. 14 g of \(N_2\)
2. 18 g of \(H_2O\)
3. 16 g of CO
4. 28 g of \(N_2\)
81. Which of the following plot represents the variation of
\(ln ~k\) versus
\(\frac 1{T}\) in according with Arrhenius equation?
82. A steam volatile organic compound which is immiscible with water has a boiling point of \(250^\circ \text{C}\). During steam distillation, a mixture of this organic compound and water will boil:
1. above \(100^\circ \text{C}\) but below \(250^\circ \text{C}\).
2. above \(250^\circ \text{C}\).
3. at \(250^\circ \text{C}\).
4. close to but below \(100^\circ \text{C}\).
83. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
Glycogen is similar to amylose in its
structure. |
| Statement II: |
Glycogen is found in yeast and fungi also. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
84. The oxidation states not shown by Mn in given reaction is:
\(\mathrm{3MnO^{2-}_4+4H^+\rightarrow 2MnO^{2-}_4+MnO_{2}+2H_2O}\)
A. +6
B. +2
C. +4
D. +7
E. +3
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. D and E only
2. B and D only
3. A and B only
4. B and E only
85. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
The Balmer spectral line for H atom with lowest energy is located at \(\frac 5{36}\mathrm{ R_H~ cm^{-1}}\) (\(\mathrm{R_H}\) = Rydberg constant) |
| Statement II: |
When the temperature of blackbody increases, the maxima of the curve (intensity versus wavelength) shifts to shorter wavelength. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Chemistry - Section B
86. Identify D in the following sequence of reactions:
1. n-propyl alcohol
2. isopropyl alcohol
3. propanal
4. propionic acid
87. Identify the incorrect statement.
1. \(\mathrm{PEt}_3\) and \(\mathrm{Asph}_3\) as ligands can form \(\mathrm{d} \pi-\mathrm{d} \pi\) bone with transition metals.
2. The \(\mathrm{N}-\mathrm{N}\) single bond is as strong as the \(\mathrm{P}-\mathrm{P}\) single bond.
3. Nitrogen has unique ability to form \(\mathrm{p \pi-p \pi}\) multiple bonds with nitrogen, carbon and oxygen.
4. Nitrogen cannot form \(\mathrm{d} \pi-\mathrm{p} \pi\) bond as other heavier elements of its group.
88. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I
(Test/reagent) |
|
List-II
(Radical identified) |
| A. |
Lake Test |
I. |
\( \mathrm{NO}_3^{-} \) |
| B. |
Nessler's Reagent |
II. |
\(\mathrm{Fe}^{3+} \) |
| C. |
Potassium sulpho cyanide |
III. |
\( \mathrm{Al}^{3+}\) |
| D. |
Brown Ring Test |
IV. |
\(\mathrm{NH}_4^{+}\) |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
2. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
89. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I
Molecule |
|
List-II
Bond enthalpy \(\left(k J \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\right)\) |
| A. |
HCl |
I. |
435.8 |
| B. |
\(\mathrm{N_2}\) |
II. |
498 |
| C. |
\(\mathrm{H_2}\) |
III. |
946.0 |
| D. |
\(\mathrm{O_2}\) |
IV. |
431.0 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
2. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-II
90. The standard cell potential of the following cell \(\mathrm{Zn}\left|\mathrm{Zn}^{2+}(\mathrm{aq}) \| \mathrm{Fe}^{2+}(\mathrm{aq})\right| \mathrm{Fe}~\text{ is }~0.32 \mathrm{~V}.\) Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for the reaction:
\(\mathrm{Zn}(\mathrm{s})+\mathrm{Fe}^{2+}(\mathrm{aq}) \rightarrow \mathrm{Zn}^{2+}(\mathrm{aq})+\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{s})\)
(Given : \(1 \mathrm{~F}=96487 \mathrm{C} \))
1. \(-61.75 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\)
2. \(+5.006 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\)
3. \(-5.006 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\)
4. \(+61.75 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\)
91. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I
Solid salt treated with dil. \(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4\) |
|
List-II
Anion detected |
| A. |
effervescence of colourless gas |
I. |
\( \mathrm{NO}_2^{-} \) |
| B. |
gas with smell of rotten egg |
II. |
\(\mathrm{CO}_3^{2-} \) |
| C. |
gas with pungent smell |
III. |
\(\mathrm{S}^{2-}\) |
| D. |
brown fumes |
IV. |
\(\mathrm{SO}_3^{2-}\) |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
92. The ratio of solubility of \(\mathrm{AgCl}\) in \(0.1~ \mathrm{M} ~\mathrm{KCl}\) solution to the solubility of \( \mathrm{Ag} \mathrm{Cl}\) in water is:
(Given : Solubility product of \(\mathrm{AgCl}=10^{-10}\) )
1. \(10^{-4}\)
2. \(10^{-6}\)
3. \(10^{-9}\)
4. \(10^{-5}\)
93. On complete combustion, \(0.3 \mathrm{~g}\) of an organic compound gave \(0.2 \mathrm{~g}\) of \(\mathrm{CO}_2~ \mathrm{and}~ 0.1 \mathrm{~g}\) of \(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\). The percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in the compound, respectively is:
1. \(4.07 \% ~\mathrm{and}~ 15.02 \%\)
2. \(18.18 \% ~\mathrm{and}~ 3.70 \%\)
3. \(15.02 \% ~\mathrm{and}~ 4.07 \%\)
(4. \(3.70 \% ~\mathrm{and}~ 18.18 \%\)
94. The following reaction method
is not suitable for the preparation of the corresponding haloarene products, due to high reactivity of halogen, when X is:
1. F
2. I
3. Cl
4. Br
95. The alkane that can be oxidized to the corresponding alcohol by
\(\mathrm{KMnO}_4\) as per the equation
is, when:
1.
\( \mathrm{R}_1=\mathrm{H} ; \mathrm{R}_2=\mathrm{H} ; \mathrm{R}_3=\mathrm{H} \)
2.
\( \mathrm{R}_1=\mathrm{CH}_3 ; \mathrm{R}_2=\mathrm{CH}_3 ; \mathrm{R}_3=\mathrm{CH}_3 \)
3.
\( \mathrm{R}_1=\mathrm{CH}_3 ; \mathrm{R}_2=\mathrm{H} ; \mathrm{R}_3=\mathrm{H}\)
4.
\(\mathrm{R}_1=\mathrm{CH}_3 ; \mathrm{R}_2=\mathrm{CH}_3 ; \mathrm{R}_3=\mathrm{H}\)
96. For the following reaction at 300K
\(\mathrm{A}_2(\mathrm{~g})+3 \mathrm{~B}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{AB}_3(\mathrm{~g})\)
the enthalpy change is +15 kJ, then the internal energy change is:
1. 19988.4 J
2. 200 J
3. 1999 J
4. 1.9988 kJ
97. Rate constants of a reaction at 500 K and 700 K are 0.04 \(s^{-1}\) and 0.14 \(s^{-1}\), respectively; then, activation energy of the reaction is:
(Given : log 3.5 = 0.5441, R = 8.31 J \(K^{-1} \) \(\mathrm {mol}^{-1}\))
1. 182310 J
2. 18500 J
3. 18219 J
4. 18030 J
98. Mass of glucose \(\left(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_{12} \mathrm{O}_6\right)\) required to be dissolved to prepare one litre of its solution which is isotone with \(15~g~L^{-1}\) solution of urea \(\mathrm{(NH_2 CONH_2)}\) is:
(Given : Molar mass in g \(\mathrm{mol}^{-1}\) C:12, H:1, O: 16, N:14 )
1. 55 g
2. 15 g
3. 30 g
4. 45 g
99. \([\mathrm{Mn}_2(\mathrm{CO})_{10}]\) and \([\mathrm{Co}_2(\mathrm{CO})_8]\) structures have:
A. Metal-Metal linkage
B. Terminal CO groups
C. Bridging CO groups
D. Metal in zero oxidation state
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Only A, B, C
2. Only B, C, D
3. Only A, C, D
4. Only A, B, D
100. Methyl group attached to a positively charged carbon atom stabilizes the carbocation due to:
1. -I inductive effect
2. electromeric effect
3. hyperconjugation
4. mesomeric effect
Biology - 1 - Section A
101. The regions with high level of species richness, high degree of endemism and a loss of 70% of the species and habitat are identified as :
1. Natural Reserves
2. Sacred Groves
3. Biodiversity Hotspots
4. Biogeographical Regions
102. Which of the following simple tissues are commonly found in the fruit walls of nuts and pulp of pear?
1. Sclereids
2. Fibres
3. Parenchyma
4. Collenchyma
103. In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA sequence, responsible for initiating replication. It is called as:
1. recognition sequence
2. cloning site
3. restriction site
4. ori site
104. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
When many alleles of single gene govern a character, it is called polygenic inheritance. |
| Statement II: |
In Polygenic inheritance, the effect of each allele is additive |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1.
Statement I is True but
Statement II is False
2.
Statement I is False but
Statement II is True
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are True
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are False
105. Which of the following are required for the light reaction of photosynthesis?
A. \(\mathrm {CO}_2\)
B. \(\mathrm {O}_2\)
C. \(\mathrm {H_2O}\)
D. Chlorophyll
E. Light
1. A , C, D and E only
2. C, D and E only
3. A and B only
4. A, C and E only
106. Match List-I with List-II
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A |
Fleming |
I. |
Disc shaped sacs or cisternae near cell nucleus |
| B. |
Robert Brown |
II. |
Chromatin |
| C. |
George Palade |
III. |
Ribosomes |
| D. |
Camillo Golgi |
IV. |
Nucleus |
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
1. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I
2. A-II, B-III,C-I,D-IV
3. A-I,B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-IV,B-II, C-III, D-I
107.
|
List-I
Types of inheritance |
|
List-II
Example |
| A. |
Incomplete dominance |
I. |
Blood groups in human |
| B. |
Co-dominance |
II. |
Flower colour in Antirrhinum |
| C. |
Pleiotropy |
III. |
Skin colour in human |
| D. |
Polygenic inheritance |
IV. |
Phenylketonuria |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III,B-IV, C-II, D-I
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. A-II,B-III, C-I, D-IV
4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
108. Which part of the ovule store reserve food material?
1. Nucellus
2. Integument
3, Placenta
4. Funicle
109. Which one of the following is not found in Gymnosperms?
1. Sieve Cells
2. Albuminous Cells
3. Tracheids
4. Vessels
110. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation?
1. Wild-life sanctuary
2. Botanical garden
3. Biosphere reserve
4. National park
111. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
The Indian Government has set up GEAC, which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research. |
| Statement II: |
Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by native people |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.
Statement I is True but
Statement II is False
2.
Statement I is False but
Statement II is True
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are True
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are False
112. Pollen grains remain preserved as fossil due to the presence of :
1. Epidermal layer
2. Tapetum
3. Exine layer
4. Intine layer
113. Identify the incorrect pair:
1. Sphenopsida-Adiantum
2. Pteropsida-Dryopteris
3. Psilopsida-Psilotum
4. Lycopsida - Selaginella
114. Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Gymnosperms: Cedrus, Pinus, Sequoia
2. Angiosperms: Wolffia, Eucalyptus, Sequoia
3. Bryophytes : Polytrichum, Polysiphonia, Sphagnum
4. Pteridophytes : Equisetum, Ginkgo, Adiantum
115. Given below are statements regarding RNA polymerase in prokaryotes:
| Statement I: |
In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase is capable of catalysing the process of elongation during transcription. |
| Statement II: |
RNA polymerase associates transiently with 'Rho' factor to initiate transcription. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from options given below:
1.
Statement I is True but
Statement II is False
2.
Statement I is False but
Statement II is True
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are True
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are False
116. Which of the following is a nucleotide?
1. Uridine
2. Adenylic acid
3. Guanine
4. Guanosine
117. Match List I with List II:
|
List I |
|
List II |
| A. |
Vexillary aestivation |
I. |
Brinjal |
| B. |
Epipetalous stamens |
II. |
Peach |
| C. |
Epiphyllous stamens |
III. |
Pea |
| D. |
Perigynous flower |
IV. |
Lily |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A- III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2. A- III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. A- III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
4. A- II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
118. Match List I with List II
|
List I |
|
List II |
| A. |
China rose |
I. |
Free central |
| B. |
Mustard |
II. |
Basal |
| C. |
Primrose |
III. |
Axile |
| D. |
Marigold |
IV. |
Parietal |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A- IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. A- II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3. A- III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. A- III, B-VI, C-II, D-I
119. Which of the following helps in maintenance of the pressure gradient in sieve tubes?
1. Albuminous cells
2. Sieve cells
3. Phloem parenchyma
4. Companion cells
120. Mesosome in a cell is a:
| 1. |
Membrane bound vesicular structure |
| 2. |
Chain of many ribosomes attached to a single mRNA |
| 3. |
special structure formed by the extension of plasma membrane |
| 4. |
medium sized chromosome |
121. Match List I with List II:
|
List I |
|
List II |
| A. |
Abscisic acid |
I. |
Promotes female flowers in cucumber |
| B. |
Ethylene |
II. |
Helps seeds to withstand desiccation |
| C. |
Gibberellin |
III. |
Helps in nutrient mobilisation |
| D. |
Cytokinin |
IV. |
Promotes bolting in beet cabbage etc |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I
2. A-III, B-II, C- I, D- IV
3. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D- III
4. A-II, B-I, C- III, D- IV
122. Match List I with List II:
|
List I |
|
List II |
| A. |
Genetically engineered Human Insulin |
I. |
Gene therapy |
| B. |
GM Cotton |
II. |
E.Coli |
| C. |
ADA Deficiency |
III. |
Antigen-antibody interaction |
| D. |
ELISA |
IV. |
Bacillus thuringiensis |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III, B-II, C- IV, D- I
2. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D- III
3. A-IV, B-III, C- I, D- II
4. A-II, B-IV, C- I, D- III
123. Match List I with List II:
|
List I |
|
List II |
| A. |
ETS Complex I |
I. |
NADH Dehydrogenase |
| B. |
ETS Complex II |
II. |
Cytochrome bC1 |
| C. |
ETS Complex III |
III. |
Cytochrome C oxidase |
| D. |
ETS Complex IV |
IV. |
Succinate Dehydrogenase |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV, B-I, C- III, D- II
2. A-I, B-IV, C- II, D- III
3. A-III, B-I, C- IV, D- II
4. A-I, B-II, C- IV, D- III
124. Cryopreservation technique is used for:
| 1. |
Protection of environment |
| 2. |
Protection of biodiversity hotspots |
| 3. |
Preservation of gametes in viable and fertile conditions for a long period |
| 4. |
In-situ conservation |
125. Which of the following are correct about cellular respiration?
| A. |
Cellular respiration is the breaking of C-C bonds of complex organic molecules by oxidation. |
| B. |
The entire cellular respiration takes place in mitochondria. |
| C. |
Fermentation takes place under anaerobic conditions in germinating seeds. |
| D. |
The fate of pyruvate formed during glycolysis depends on the type of organism also. |
| E. |
Water is formed during respiration as a result of \(O_2\) accepting electrons and getting reduced. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.
A,
C,
D,
E only
2.
A,
B,
E only
3.
A,
B,
C,
E only
4.
B,
C,
D,
E only
126. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
In eukaryotes, there are three RNA polymerases in the nucleus in addition to the RNA polymerase found in the organelle. |
| Statement II: |
All the three RNA polymerases in eukaryotic nucleus have different roles. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.
Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect.
2.
Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct.
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II is correct.
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II is incorrect.
127. Match List I with List II:
|
List I |
|
List II |
| A. |
Histones |
I. |
Loosely packed chromatin |
| B. |
Nucleosome |
II. |
Densely packed chromatin |
| C. |
Euchromatin |
III. |
Positively charged basic proteins |
| D. |
Heterochromatin |
IV. |
DNA wrapped around histone octamer |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV, B-III, C- II, D- I
2. A-III, B-I, C- IV, D- II
3. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I
4. A-III, B-IV, C- I, D- II
128. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell cycle, resulting in the gain or loss of whole set of chromosome in an organism, is known as aneuploidy. |
| Statement II: |
Failure of cytokinesis after anaphase stage of cell division resulting in the gain or loss of chromosome is called polyploidy. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.
Statement I is True but
Statement II is False
2.
Statement I is False but
Statement II is True
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are True
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are False
129. Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of:
1. Diakinesis
2. Zygotene
3. Diplotene
4. Pachytene
130. Match List I with List II:
|
List I |
|
List II |
| A. |
Metacentric chromosome |
I. |
Chromosome has a terminal centromere |
| B. |
Sub-metacentric chromosome |
II. |
Middle centromere forming two equal arms of chromosome |
| C. |
Acrocentric chromosome |
III. |
Centromere is slightly away from the middle chromosome resulting into two unequal arms |
| D. |
Telocentric chromosome |
IV. |
Centromere is situated close to its end forming one extremely short and one very long arm |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D- III
2. A-IV, B-I, C- II, D- III
3. A-I, B-II, C- III, D- IV
4. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I
131. Ligases is a class of enzymes responsible for catalysing the linking together of two compounds. Which of the following bonds is not catalysed by it?
1. C-C
2. P-O
3. C-O
4. C-N
132. F. Skoog observed that callus proliferated from the internodal segments of tobacco stem when auxin was supplied with one of the following, except:
1. Extract of vascular tissues
2. Coconut milk
3. Abscisic acid
4. Yeast extract
133. Given below are some statements about plant growth regulators:
| A. |
All GAs are acidic in nature. |
| B. |
Auxins are antagonists to GAs. |
| C. |
Zeatin was isolated from coconut milk. |
| D. |
Ethylene induces flowering in Mango. |
| E. |
Abscisic acid induces parthenocarpy. |
Choose the correct set of statements from the ones given below:
| 1. |
A,C,D |
2. |
B,E |
| 3. |
A,B,C |
4. |
B,D,E |
134. Identify the incorrect statement related to electrophoresis:
| 1. |
Separated DNA fragments can be directly seen under UV radiation |
| 2. |
Separated DNA can be extracted from gel piece. |
| 3. |
Fragments of DNA moves toward anode. |
| 4. |
Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in separation of DNA fragments. |
135. Which of the following examples show monocarpellary, unilocular ovary with many ovules?
A. Sesbania
B. Brinjal
C. Indigofera
D. Tobacco
E. Asparagus
Choose the correct answer from options given below:
1. B and E only
2. C, D and E only
3. A, B and D only
4. A and C only
Biology - 1 - Section B
136. Given below are two statements :
| Statement I: |
In the lac operon, the z gene codes beta-galactosidase which is primary responsible for the hydrolysis of lactose into galactose and glucose. |
| Statement II: |
In addition of lactose, glucose or galactose can also induce lac operon. |
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.
Statement I is True but
Statement II is False
2.
Statement I is False but
Statement II is True
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are True
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are False
137. The marked part as 'x' in the given figure is
| 1. |
Endosperm |
2. |
Thalamus |
| 3. |
Endocarp |
4. |
Mesocarp |
138. Given below are two statements:
| Statements I: |
In a dicotyledonous leaf, the adaxial epidermis general bears more stomata than the abaxial epidermis. |
| Statement II: |
In a dicotyledonous leaf, the adaxially placed palisade parenchyma is made up of elongated cells, which are arranged vertically and parallel to each other. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.
Statement I is True but
Statement II is False
2.
Statement I is False but
Statement II is True
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are True
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are False
139. Which of the following are not fatty acids?
A. Glutamic acid
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Palmitic acid
D. Lecithin
E. Aspartic acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. C, D and E only
2. A and B only
3. A, D and E only
4. B and C only
140. Consider the pyramid of energy of an ecosystem given below :
If
\(\text T_4\) is equivalent to
\(1000~\text J,\) what is the value of T
1?
| 1. |
\(\dfrac{ 1000 }{10}~\text J\) |
2. |
\(\dfrac{ 1000}{10} \times 4~\text J \) |
| 3. |
\(10,000~\text J\) |
4. |
\(10,00,000~\text J \) |
141. Which one of the following products diffuses out chloroplast during photosynthesis?
1. ADP
2. NADPH
3. \(O_2\)
4. ATP
142. Recombinant DNA molecule can be created normally by cutting the vector DNA and source DNA respectively with:
1. Hind II, Hind II
2. Hind II, Alu I
3. Hind II, EcoR I
4. Hind II, Bam HI
143. Which one of the following is not a limitation of ecological pyramids?
| 1. |
Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids |
| 2. |
It assumes a simple food chain that, almost, never exists in nature |
| 3. |
It accommodates a food web |
| 4. |
It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels |
144. The Bt toxin in genetically engineered Bt cotton kills the pest by:
1. creating pores in the midgut
2. damaging the respiratory system
3. degenerating the nervous system
4. altering the pH of body fluids
145. Match List I with List II:
|
List I
Organisms |
|
List II
Mode of Nutrition |
| A. |
Euglenoid |
I. |
Parasitic |
| B. |
Dinoflagellate |
II. |
Saprophytic |
| C. |
Slime mould |
III. |
Photosynthetic |
| D. |
Plasmodium |
IV. |
Switching between photosynthetic and heterotrophic mode |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III, B-IV, C- II, D- I
2. A-IV, B-II, C- I, D- III
3. A-IV, B-III, C- II, D- I
4. A-IV, B-II, C- III, D- I
146. Which of the following graphs depicts the effect of substrate concentration on velocity of enzyme catalysed reaction?
147. When will the population density increase, under special conditions?
When the number of:
| 1. |
deaths exceeds number of births and also number of emigrants equals number of immigrants |
| 2. |
births plus number of immigrants equal number of deaths plus number of emigrants |
| 3. |
birth plus number of emigrants is more than the number of deaths plus number of immigrants |
| 4. |
birth plus number of immigrants is more than the sum of number of deaths and number of emigrants |
148. When a tall pea plant with round seeds was selfed, it produced the progeny of:
(a) tall plants with round seeds and
(b) tall plants with wrinkled seeds
Identify the genotype of the parent plant:
1. TtRr
2. TtRR
3. TTRR
4. TTRr
149. Match List I with List II:
|
List I |
|
List II |
| A. |
Biodiversity hotspot |
I. |
Khasi and Jantia hills in Meghalaya |
| B. |
Sacred groves |
II. |
World Summit in Sustainable Development 2002 |
| C. |
Johannesburg South Africa |
III. |
Parthenium |
| D. |
Alien species invasion |
IV. |
Western Ghats |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV, B-I, C- II, D- III
2. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I
3. A-I, B-IV, C- III, D- I
4. A-III, B-I, C- II, D- IV
150. Observe the given figure. Identify the different stages labelled with alphabets by selecting the correct option:
1. A-Carboxylation, B-Regeneration, C-Reduction
2. A-Reduction, B-Decarboxylation, C-Regeneration
3. A-Carboxylation, B-Reduction, C-Regeneration
4. A-Reduction, B-Carboxylation, C-Regeneration
Biology - 2 - Section A
151. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Predator |
I. |
Ophrys |
| B. |
Mutualism |
II. |
Pisaster |
| C. |
Parasitism |
III. |
Female wasp and fig |
| D. |
Sexual deceit |
IV. |
Plasmodium |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
2. A-IV,B-I,C-II,D-III
3. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
4. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I
152. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I Location of Joint |
|
List-II Type of Joint |
| A. |
Joint between humerus and pectoral girdle |
I. |
Gliding joint |
| B. |
Knee joint |
II. |
Ball and socket joint |
| C. |
Joint between atlas and axis |
III. |
Hinge Joint |
| D. |
Joint between carpals |
IV. |
Pivot joint |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I
2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
3. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II
4. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV
153. Following are the steps involved in action of toxin in
Bt Cotton:
| A. |
The inactive toxin converted into active form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect |
| B. |
Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with toxic insecticidal proteins. |
| C. |
The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals. |
| D. |
The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut cells, creates pores and causes death of the insect. |
| E. |
The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in bacteria. |
Choose the correct sequence of steps from the options given below:
1. E→C→B→A→D
2. B→C→A→E→D
3. A→E→B→D→C
4. B→E→C→A→D
154. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Gene pool |
I. |
Stable within a generation |
| B. |
Genetic drift |
II. |
Change in gene frequency by chance |
| C. |
Genetic flow |
III. |
Transfer of genes into or out of population |
| D. |
Gene frequency |
IV. |
Total number of genes and their alleles |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
2. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
3. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV
4. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I
155. Which evolutionary phenomenon is depicted by the sketch given in figure?
1. Artificial selection
2. Genetic drift
3. Convergent evolution
4. Adaptive radiation
156. A person with blood group A Rh- can receive the blood transfusion from which of the following types?
A. B Rh-
B. AB Rh-
C. O Rh-
D. A Rh-
E. A Rh+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. D and E only
2. D only
3. A and B only
4. C and D only
157. Enzymes that catalyse the removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds, are known as:
1. Transferases
2. Oxidoreductases
3. Dehydrogenases
4. Lyases
158. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I
Event |
|
List-II
Stage of Prophase-I
(Meiosis - I) |
| A. |
Chiasmata |
I. |
Pachytene |
| B. |
Crossing over |
II. |
Diakinesis |
| C. |
Synaptonemal complex formation |
III. |
Diplotene |
| D. |
Terminalisation of chiasmata |
IV. |
Zygotene |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
2. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV
3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV
4. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I
159. Match List-I with List-II
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Primary structure of protein |
I. |
Human haemoglobin |
| B. |
Secondary structure of protein |
II. |
Disulphide bonds |
| C. |
Tertiary structure of protein |
III. |
Polypeptide chain |
| D. |
Quaternary structure of protein |
IV. |
Alpha helix and β sheet |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
3. A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV
4. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
160. Match List-I with List-II
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Epinephrine |
I. |
Hyperglycemia |
| B. |
Thyroxine |
II. |
Smooth muscle contraction |
| C. |
Oxytocin |
III. |
Basal metabolic rate |
| D. |
Glucagon |
IV. |
Emergency hormone |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II,B-I,C-IV,D-III
2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
3. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
4. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II
161. Which of the following statements is correct about the type of junction and their role in our body?
| 1. |
Adhering junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other. |
| 2. |
Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue. |
| 3. |
Tight junctions help to perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. |
| 4. |
Gap junctions help to create gap between the cells and tissues. |
162. Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose restriction sites are present for the tetracycline resistance (tetR) gene in the pBR322 cloning vector.
1. Bam HI and Sal I
2. Sal I and Pst I
3. Pst I and Pvu I
4. Pvu I and Bam HI
163. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Chondrichthyes |
I. |
Clarias |
| B. |
Cyclostomata |
II. |
Carcharodon |
| C. |
Osteichthyes |
III. |
Myxine |
| D. |
Amphibia |
IV. |
Ichthyophis |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
2. A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV
3. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
4. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV
164. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
| Assertion (A): |
During menstrual cycle, the ovulation takes place approximately on 14th day. |
| Reason (R): |
Rapid secretion of LH in the middle of menstrual cycle induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby the release of ovum. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
| 1. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
| 2. |
(A) is False but (R) is True |
| 3. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
| 4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
165. Match List-I with List-II with respect to convergent evolution:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Lemur |
I. |
Flying phalanger |
| B. |
Bobcat |
II. |
Numbat |
| C. |
Anteater |
III. |
Spotted cuscus |
| D. |
Flying squirrels |
IV. |
Tasmanian tiger cat |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
2. A-III,B-II,C-IV,D-I
3. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
4. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
166. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Cells are metabolically active and proliferate |
I. |
G2 phase |
| B. |
DNA replication takes place |
II. |
G1 phase |
| C. |
Proteins are synthesised |
III. |
G0 phase |
| D. |
Quiescent stage with metabolically active cells |
IV. |
S phase |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
2. A-I,B-III,C-IV,D-II
3. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV
4. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
167. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Migratory flamingoes and resident fish in South American lakes |
I. |
Interference competition |
| B. |
Abingdon tortoise became extinct after introduction of goats in their habitat |
II. |
Competitive release |
| C. |
Chathamalus expands its distributional range in the absence of Balanus |
III. |
Resource partitioning |
| D. |
Five closely related species of Warblers feeding in different location on the same tree |
IV. |
Interspecific competition |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II
2. A-IV,B-I,C-II,D-III
3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV
4. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I
168. Match List-I with List-II relating to microbes and their products :
|
List-I
(Microbes) |
|
List-II
(Products) |
| A. |
Streptococcus |
I. |
Citric acid |
| B. |
Trichoderma polysporum |
II. |
Clot buster |
| C. |
Monascus purpureus |
III. |
Cyclosporin A |
| D. |
Aspergillus niger |
IV. |
Statins |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
169. Match List-I with List-II.
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
F1 Particles |
I. |
Chromosomes |
| B. |
Histones |
II. |
Cilia |
| C. |
Axoneme |
III. |
Golgi apparatus |
| D. |
Cisternae |
IV. |
Mitochondria |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
170. Match List-I with List-II relating to examples of various kind of IUDs and barrier :
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Copper releasing IUD |
I. |
Vaults |
| B. |
Non-medicated IUD |
II. |
Multiload 375 |
| C. |
Contraceptive barrier |
III. |
LNG-20 |
| D. |
Hormone releasing IUD |
IV. |
Lippes loop |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
171. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
Antibiotics are chemicals produced by microbes that kill other microbes. |
| Statement II: |
Antibodies are chemicals formed in body that eliminate microbes. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1.
Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect.
2.
Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct.
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are correct.
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are incorrect.
172. Arrange the following parts in human mammary gland, traversing the route of milk ejection.
A. Mammary duct
B. Lactiferous duct
C. Mammary alveolus
D. Ampulla
E. Mammary tubule
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. D→C→E→A→B
2. C→E→B→A→D
3. C→E→A→D→B
4. A→C→E→D→B
173. Which of the following are correct about EcoR1?
| A. |
Cut the DNA with blunt end |
| B. |
Cut the DNA with sticky end |
| C. |
Recognises a specific palindromic sequence. |
| D. |
Cut the DNA between the base G and A where encounters the DNA sequence 'GAATTC' |
| E. |
Exonuclease |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.
B,
C,
E only
2.
A,
D,
E only
3.
A,
C,
D only
4.
B,
C,
D only
174. Which of the following is/are present in female cockroach?
A. Collateral gland
B. Mushroom gland
C. Spermatheca
D. Anal style
E. Phallic gland
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. B and D only
2. B and E only
3. A only
4. A and C only
175. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Malignant tumors |
I. |
Destroy tumors |
| B. |
MALT |
II. |
AIDS |
| C. |
NACO |
III. |
Metastasis |
| D. |
α - Interferons |
IV. |
Lymphoid tissue |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
2. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
3. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II
4. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
176. Open Circulatory system is present in:
1. Palaemon, Nereis, Balanoglossus
2. Hirudinaria, Bombyx, Salpa
3. Anopheles, Limax, Limulus
4. Pheretima, Musca, Pila
177. In which of the following connective tissues, the cells secrete fibres of collagen or elastin?
A. Cartilage
B. Bone
C. Adipose tissue
D. Blood
E. Areolar tissue
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. B,C,D and E only
2. A,B,C and E only
3. B,C and D only
4. A,C and D only
178. Which of the following pairs is an incorrect match?
1. Annelids and arthropods - Bilateral symmetry
2. Sponges - Acoelomates
3. Coelenterates and Ctenophores - Radial symmetry
4. Platyhelminthes - Diploblastic organisation
179. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Residual volume |
I. |
Maximum volume of air that can be breathed in after forced expiration |
| B. |
Vital capacity |
II. |
Volume of air inspired or expired during normal respiration |
| C. |
Expiratory capacity |
III. |
Volume of air remaining in lungs after forcible expiration |
| D. |
Tidal Volume |
IV. |
Total volume of air expired after normal inspiration |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
2. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
3. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
4. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV
180. Match List-I with List-II
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Living Fossil |
I. |
Elongated canine teeth |
| B. |
Connecting Link |
II. |
Vermiform appendix |
| C. |
Vestigial Organ |
III. |
Echidna |
| D. |
Atavism |
IV. |
Latimeria |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
2. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
3. A-IV,B-III,C-I,D-II
4. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II
181. Match List-I with List-II
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Schwann cells |
I. |
Neurotransmitter |
| B. |
Synaptic knob |
II. |
Cerebral cortex |
| C. |
Bipolar neurons |
III. |
Myelin Sheath |
| D. |
Multipolar neurons |
IV. |
Retina |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
2. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III
3. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
4. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
182. Diuresis is prevented by:
1. Renin from JG cells via switching off the osmoreceptors.
2. ANF from atria of the heart
3. Aldosterone from adrenal medulla
4. Vasopressin from Neurohypophysis
183. Following is the list of STDs. Select the diseases which are not completely curable.
A. Genital warts
B. Genital herpes
C. Syphilis
D. Hepatitis-B
E. Trichomoniasis
Choose the correct answer from options given below:
1. A and D only
2. B and D only
3. A and C only
4. D and E only
184. What is the correct order (old to recent) of periods in Paleozoic era?
1. Silurian, Devonian, Permian, Carboniferous
2. Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, Permian
3. Permian, Devonian, Silurian, Carboniferous
4. Silurian, Carboniferous, Permian, Devonian
185. 'Lub' sound of heart is caused by the ___________.
1. closure of the semilunar valves
2. opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
3. opening of the semilunar valves
4. closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
Biology - 2 - Section B
186. Match List-I with List-II relating to human female external genitalia :
|
List-I
(Structures) |
|
List-II
(Features) |
| A. |
Mons pubis |
I. |
A fleshy fold of tissue surrounding the vaginal opening |
| B. |
Clitoris |
II. |
Fatty cushion of cells covered by skin and hair |
| C. |
Hymen |
III. |
Tiny finger-like structure above labia minora |
| D. |
Labia majora |
IV. |
A thin membrane-like structure covering vaginal opening |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
187. Aneuploidy is a chromosomal disorder where chromosome number is not the exact copy of its haploid set of chromosomes, due to :
A. Substitution
B. Addition
C. Deletion
D. Translocation
E. Inversion
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. C and D only
2. D and E only
3. A and B only
4. B and C only
188. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as method of cellular defense. |
| Statement II: |
RNAi involves the silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary single stranded RNA molecule that binds and prevents translation of mRNA |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1.
Statement I is True but
Statement II is False.
2.
Statement I is False but
Statement II is True.
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are True.
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are False.
189. Identify the wrong statements :
| A. |
Erythropoietin is produced by juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney |
| B. |
Leydig cells produce Androgens |
| C. |
Atrial Natriuretic factor, a peptide hormone is secreted by the seminiferous tubules of the testes |
| D. |
Cholecystokinin is produced by gastro intestinal tract |
| E. |
Gastrin acts on intestinal wall and helps in the production of pepsinogen |
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
1.
D and
E only
2.
A and
B only
3.
C and
E only
4.
A and
C only
190. Following are the steps involved in the process of PCR.
A. Annealing
B. Amplification (~1 billion times)
C. Denaturation
D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and deoxynucleotides
E. Extension
Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR from the options given below :
1. C → A → D → E → B
2. A → B → E → D → C
3. A → C → E → D → B
4. D → B → E → C → A
191. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
Concentrated urine is formed due to counter current mechanism in nephron. |
| Statement II: |
Counter current mechanism helps to maintain osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitium. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1.
Statement I is correct but
Statement II is incorrect.
2.
Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct.
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are correct.
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are incorrect.
192. Given below are two statements:
| Statement I: |
Concentrically arranged cisternae of Golgi complex are arranged near the nucleus with distinct convex cis or maturing and concave trans or forming face. |
| Statement II: |
A number of proteins are modified in the cisternae of Golgi complex before they are released from cis face. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1.
Statement I is True but
Statement II is False.
2.
Statement I is False but
Statement II is True.
3. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are True.
4. Both
Statement I and
Statement II are False.
193. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Parturition |
I. |
Several antibodies for new-born babies |
| B. |
Placenta |
II. |
Collection of ovum after ovulation |
| C. |
Colostrum |
III. |
Foetal ejection reflex |
| D. |
Fimbriae |
IV. |
Secretion of the hormone hCG |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II
2. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III
3. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I
4. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
194. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
| Assertion (A): |
Members of subphylum vertebrate possess notochord during the embryonic period. The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in the adult. |
| Reason (R): |
Thus all chordates are vertebrates but not all vertebrates are chordates |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| 1. |
(A) is True but (R) is False |
| 2. |
(A) is False but (R) is True |
| 3. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
| 4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
195. The mother has A+ blood group, the father has B+ and the child is A+. What can be possible genotypes of all three, respectively?
A. IAIA | IBi | IBi
B. IAIA | IBi | IAi
C. IB i IA IA| IA IB
D. IAIA | IBIB | IAi
E. IA | IBi | IAi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. C and D
2. D and A
3. A and B
4. B and E
196. What do 'a' and 'b' represent in the following population growth curve?
| 1. |
'a' represents exponential growth when responses are not limiting the growth; and 'b' represents logistic growth when responses are limiting the growth. |
| 2. |
'a' represents logistic growth when responses are not limiting the growth; 'b' represents exponential growth when responses are limiting the growth. |
| 3. |
'a' represents carrying capacity and 'b' shows logistic growth when responses are limiting the growth. |
| 4. |
'a' represents exponential growth when responses are not limiting the growth and 'b' shows carrying capacity. |
197. Select the correct statements regarding mechanism of muscle contraction.
| A. |
It is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via sensory neuron. |
| B. |
Neurotransmitter generates action potential in the sarcolemma. |
| C. |
Increased Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium with troponin actin filaments. |
| D. |
Masking of active site for actin is activated. |
| E. |
Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis to form cross bridge. |
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1.
B,
C and
E only
2.
C,
D and
E only
3.
A and
D only
4.
B,
D and
E only
198. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
Squamous Epithelium |
I. |
Goblet cells of alimentary canal |
| B. |
Ciliated Epithelium |
II. |
Inner lining of pancreatic ducts |
| C. |
Glandular Epithelium |
III. |
Walls of blood vessels |
| D. |
Compound Epithelium |
IV. |
Inner surface of Fallopian tubes |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
2. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I
3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV
4. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II
199. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
| A. |
B-Lymphocytes |
I. |
Passive immunity |
| B. |
Interferons |
II. |
Cell mediated immunity |
| C. |
T-Lymphocytes |
III. |
Produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens |
| D. |
Colostrum |
IV. |
Innate immunity |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III
2. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
3. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
4. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
200. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
| Assertion (A): |
During the transporation of gases, about 20-25 percent of CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin. |
| Reason (R): |
This binding is related to high pCO2 and low pO2 in the tissues |
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
| 1. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
| 2. |
(A) is False but (R) is True. |
| 3. |
Both (A)and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
| 4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
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