FORTIUS - PYQ based Unit Test # 3 (OLD NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

Mycorrhiza is an example of:

1.	Symbiotic relationship	2.	ectoparasitism
3.	endoparasitism	4.	decomposers

2. Mass of living matter at a tropic level in an area at any time is called:

1.	Detritus	2.	Humus
3.	Standing state	4.	Standing crop

3.

In the following, in each set, a conservation approach and an example of a method of conservation are given.
(a) In-situ conservation - Biosphere Reserve
(b) Ex-situ conservation - Sacred groves
(c) In-situ conservation - Seed bank
(d) Ex-situ conservation - Cryopreservation
Select the option with the correct match of approach and method:

1.	(a) and (c)	2.	(a) and (d)
3.	(b) and (d)	4.	(a) and (b)

4.

In the equation GPP - R = NPP, R represents:

1.	Environment factor	2.	Respiration losses
3.	Radiant energy	4.	Retardation factor

5.

What is the criterion for the movement of DNA fragments on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?

1.	The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
2.	Positively charged fragments move to farther end
3.	Negatively charged fragments do not move
4.	The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

6.

The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR 322 are for:
1. Ampicillin and Tetracycline
2. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
3. Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
4. Tetracycline and Kanamycin

7.

The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called:

1.	Transformer	2.	Vector
3.	Template	4.	Carrier

8.

Which of the following is generally used for induced mutagenesis in crop plants ?
1. Gamma rays (from cobalt 60)
2. Alpha particles
3. X rays
4. UV (260 nm)

9.

In which of the following, both pairs have the correct combination?

1.	Gaseous nutrient cycle Sedimentary nutrient cycle	Carbon and nitrogen Sulphur and phosphorous
2.	Gaseous nutrient cycle Sedimentary nutrient cycle	Carbon and sulphur Nitrogen and phosphorus
3.	Gaseous nutrient cycle Sedimentary nutrient cycle	Nitrogen and sulphur Carbon and phosphorous
4.	Gaseous nutrient cycle Sedimentary nutrient cycle	Sulphur and phosphorous Carbon and nitrogen

10.

Which of the following equipment is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale for the industrial production of enzymes?

1.	Bioreactor	2.	BOD incubator
3.	Sludge digester	4.	Industrial oven

11.

‘Jaya’ and ‘Ratna’, developed for the green revolution in India, are the varieties of:

1.	rice	2.	wheat
3.	bajra	4.	maize

12.

For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of:

1.	Silver or Platinum	2.	Platinum or Zinc
3.	Silicon or Platinum	4.	Gold or Tungsten

13. In India, the organization responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is:

1.	Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
2.	Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
3.	Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
4.	Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

14.

Exploration of molecular, genetic, and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as:

1.	Biopiracy	2.	Bioenergetics
3.	Bioremediation	4.	Bioprospecting

15.

Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of:

1.	Vitamin-B	2.	Vitamin-C
3.	Omega 3	4.	Vitamin-A

16.

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in river water:

1.	remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs
2.	has no relationship with the concentration of oxygen in the water
3.	gives a measure of Salmonella in the water
4.	increases when sewage gets mixed with river water

17.

About 70% of total global carbon is found in:

1.	grasslands	2.	agro-ecosystems
3.	oceans	4.	forests

18.

Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for:

1.	Disarming pathogen vectors
2.	Transformation of plant cells
3.	Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
4.	DNA fingerprinting

19.

In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus, and powdery mildew was brought about by:
1. Mutation breeding
2. Biofortification
3. Tissue culture
4. Hybridization and selection

20.

Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?

1.	Liverworts	2.	Mosses
3.	Green algae	4.	Lichens

21.

Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants?
1. Clostridium septicum
2. Xanthomonas citri
3. Bacillus coagulens
4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

22.

DNA precipitation, out of a mixture of biomolecules, can be achieved by treatment with:
1. Chilled chloroform
2. Isopropanol
3. Chilled ethanol
4. Methanol at room temperature

23.

A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using:

1.	Taq polymerase	2.	Polymerase III
3.	Ligase	4.	EcoRI

24.

The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:
1. $\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rn \left(\dfrac{N - K}{N}\right)$
2. $\dfrac{dt}{dN} = Nr \left(\dfrac{K - N}{K}\right)$
3. $\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rN \left(\dfrac{K - N}{K}\right)$
4. $\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rN$

25. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?

1.	Leaf	2.	Stem
3.	Root	4.	Flower

26.

Two different species cannot live for a long duration in the same niche or habitat. This is:
1. Allen's law
2. Gloger's rule
3. Competitive exclusion principle
4. Weismann's theory

27.

A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called:

1.	Vector	2.	Selectable marker
3.	Plasmid	4.	Probe

28.

According to Alexander von Humboldt :

1.	Species richness decreases with increasing area of exploration
2.	Species richness increases with the increasing area, but only up to a limit
3.	There is no relationship between species richness and the area explored
4.	Species richness goes on increasing with increasing area of exploration

29. Of the total incident solar radiation, proportion of PAR is:

1.	about 60%	2.	about 50%
3.	more than 80%	4.	about 70%

30.

Himgiri developed by hybridization, and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens, is a variety of:

1.	Wheat	2.	Chilli
3.	Maize	4.	Sugarcane

31.

In-gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of:
1. Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
2. Acetocarmine in UV radiation
3. Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
4. Acetocarmine in bright blue light

32.

An increase in the concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels is known as:
1. Biomagnifications
2. Biodeterioration
3. Biotransformation
4. Biogeochemical cycling

33.

Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?

1.	5'-CGTTCG-3'	2.	5'-GATATG-3'
	3'-ATGGTA-5'		3'-CTACTA-5'
3.	5'-GAATTC-3'	4.	5'-CACGTA-3'
	3'-CTTAAG-5'		3'-CTCAGT-5'

34.

Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?

1.	Plant cells- cellulose	2.	Algae - Methylase
3.	Fungi - Chitinase	4.	Bacteria - Lysozyme

35.

An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from ends of DNA is:

1.	DNA ligase	2.	Endonuclease
3.	Exonuclease	4.	Protease

Biology I - Section B

36. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector is termed as :
1. Ori site
2. Palindromic sequence
3. Recognition site
4. Selectable marker

37.

Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?

1.	Humanification-Leads to the accumulation of a dark-coloured substance in humans which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate
2.	Catabolism-Last step decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
3.	Leaching-Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of the soil
4.	Fragmentation-Carried out by organisms such as earthworms

38.

Which one of the following is not observed in biodiversity hotspots?
1. Lesser interspecific competition
2. Species richness
3. Endemism
4. Accelerated species loss

39.

Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?

1.	Stratification	2.	Natality
3.	Mortality	4.	Sex-ratio

40.

Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals that contain insecticidal protein. This protein:

1.	does not kill the carrier bacterium, which is itself resistant to this toxin.
2.	binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it.
3.	is coded by several genes including the gene cry.
4.	is activated by the acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.

41.

Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA
2.	The enzyme cuts DNA molecules at an identified position within the DNA
3.	The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands
4.	The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand

42.

Niche is:

1.	All the biological factors in the organism environment
2.	The physical space where an organism lives
3.	The range of temperature that the organism needs to live
4.	The functional role played by the organism where it lives

43.

The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called:

1.	for immediate steps to discontinue the use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
2.	to reduce CO₂ emissions and global warming
3.	for the conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits
4.	to assess the threat posed to native species by invasive weed species

44.

Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

1.	Separation	2.	Purification
3.	Preservation	4.	Expression

45.

First discovered restriction endonuclease that always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs is:
1. EcoRI
2. Adenosine deaminase
3. Thermostable DNA polymerase
4. Hind II

46.

A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as:

1.	Vector	2.	Plasmid
3.	Structural gene	4.	Selectable marker

47. When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K):
1. when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
2. when N/K equals zero
3. when the death rate is greater than the birth rate
4. when N/K is exactly one

48.

The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere are termed as:

1.	Keystone	2.	Alien
3.	Endemic	4.	Rare

49.

During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if a very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following PCR will be affected first?

1.	Denaturation	2.	Ligation
3.	Annealing	4.	Extension

50.

Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that:

1.	more abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.
2.	competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.
3.	no two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
4.	larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.

Biology II - Section A

51.

Histamine is secreted by:

1.	Mast cells	2.	Fibroblast
3.	Histiocytes	4.	Plasma cells

52.

If 20 J of energy is trapped at the producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacocks as food in the following chain?
Plant → mice → snake → peacock

1.	0.02 J	2.	0.002 J
3.	0.2 J	4.	0.0002 J

53. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by:

1.	B-lymphocytes	2.	Thrombocytes
3.	Erythorcytes	4.	T-lymphocytes

54.

Snow-blindness in Antarctic regions is due to:

1.	Inflammation of cornea due to high doses of UV-B radiation
2.	High reflection of light from snow
3.	Damage to the retina caused by infra-red rays
4.	Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature

55.

Which of the following methods is the most suitable for the disposal of nuclear waste?

1.	Bury the waste within rocks, deep below the earth's surface
2.	Shoot the waste into the space
3.	Bury the waste under the Antarctic ice-cover
4.	Dump the waste within rocks under deep ocean

56. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.
Reason (R):	Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitudes, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
2.	(A) is false but (R) is true.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

57.

During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include :
1. Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
2. Methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
3. Hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide
4. Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane

58.

A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given:

1.	penicillin	2.	streptokinase
3.	cyclosporin-A	4.	statins

59.

Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from:

1.	Papaver somniferum	2.	Atropa belladonna
3.	Erythroxylum coca	4.	Datura

60.

Which of the following protocols did aim for reducing the emission of chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere?
1. Geneva protocol
2. Montreal protocol
3. Kyoto protocol
4. Gothenburg protocol

61.

With regard to insulin, choose the correct options:

(a)	C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(b)	The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(c)	The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(d)	A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(a), (c) and (d) only	2.	(a) and (d) Only
3.	(b) and (d) only	4.	(b) and (c) only

62.

The two gases making the highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are:
1. ${CH}_{4}$ and $N_{2} O$
2. CFCs and $N_{2} O$
3. ${CO}_{2}$ and $N_{2} O$
4. ${CO}_{2}$ and ${CH}_{4}$

63.

Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

1.	Lipase	2.	Cyclosporin A
3.	Statin	4.	Streptokinase

64.

The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of the response of organisms to abiotic factors. What do (a), (b) and (c) represent, respectively?

	(a)	(b)	(c)
1.	Regulator	Conformer	Partial regulator
2.	Conformer	Regulator	Partial regulator
3.	Regulator	Partial regulator	Conformer
4.	Partial regulator	Regulator	Conformer

65.

The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating:
1. Chickenpox
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
4. Diabetes mellitus

66.

Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, has proved to be a good material for:
1. making tubes and pipes
2. making plastic sacks
3. use as a fertilizer
4. construction of roads

67.

Widal test is carried out to test:

1.	Malaria	2.	Diabetes mellitus
3.	HIV/AIDS	4.	typhoid fever

68.

The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbits in grassland is called:
1. Net productivity
2. Secondary productivity
3. Net primary productivity
4. Gross primary productivity

69.

The drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by:
1. nitration of morphine
2. methylation of morphine
3. acetylation of morphine
4. glycosylation of morphine

70.

The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals include the:

1.	Halophiles	2.	Thermoacidophiles
3.	Methanogens	4.	Eubacteria

71.

Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Citric acid	(i)	Trichoderma
(b)	Cyclosporin A	(ii)	Clostridium
(c)	Statins	(iii)	Aspergillus
(d)	Butyric acid	(iv)	Monascus

Codes:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
2.	(i)	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
4.	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)

72.

Interferons are synthesized in response to:

1.	Mycoplasma	2.	Bacteria
3.	Viruses	4.	Fungi

73.

The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:
1. Thermus aquaticus
2. Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
3. Bacillus subtilis
4. Pseudomonas putida

74.

Measuring biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a method used for:

1.	Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in producing curd on a commercial scale.
2.	Working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen.
3.	Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
4.	Working out the efficiency of oil-driven automobile engines.

75.

The decline in the population of Indian native fishes due to the introduction of Clarias gariepinus in river Yamuna can be categorised as:

1.	Co-extinction	2.	Habitat fragmentation
3.	Over exploitation	4.	Alien species invasion

76.

What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid?

1.	Stable population	2.	Declining population
3.	Expanding population	4.	Vanishing population

77.

Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that:

1.	Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease
2.	Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine
3.	Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae
4.	Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs

78.

In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected?

1.	Competition	2.	Predation
3.	Parasitism	4.	Mutualism

79.

The genetic defect-Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:

1.	periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
2.	administering adenosine deaminase activators
3.	introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
4.	invitro cell culture therapy

80.

Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to newborn infants because it contains:

1.	Immunoglobulin A	2.	Natural killer cells
3.	Monocytes	4.	Macrophages

81.

A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20, and emigration 30. The net increase in population is:

1.	10	2.	15
3.	5	4.	zero

82.

Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across the placenta or through mother's milk to the infant is categorised as:
1. Active immunity
2. Passive immunity
3. Cellular immunity
4. Innate non-specific immunity

83.

At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?

1.	Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
2.	When the infected retrovirus enters host cells
3.	When HIV damages a large number of helper T-Lymphocytes
4.	When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

84.

Which of the following statements about ozone is correct?
1. Tropospheric ozone protects us from UV radiation
2. Stratospheric ozone is 'bad'
3. Tropospheric ozone is 'good'
4. Stratospheric ozone protects us from UV radiation

85.

Between which of the following, the relationship is not an example of commensalism?
1. Orchid and the tree on which it grows
2. Cattle Egret and grazing cattle
3. Sea Anemone and Clownfish
4. Female wasp and fig species

Biology II - Section B

86. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?

1.	Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
2.	Spleen of infected humans
3.	Salivary glands of a freshly moulted female anopheles mosquito
4.	Saliva of an infected female anopheles mosquito

87.

In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?

	Examples	Type of immunity
(a)	Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes	Cellular barriers
(b)	Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injection	Active immunity
(c)	Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes	Physical barriers
(d)	Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the urinogenital tract and HCl in the stomach	Physiological barriers

1.	(a)	2.	(b)
3.	(c)	4.	(d)

88.

Consider the following four conditions (I-IV) and select the correct pair of them as an adaption to the environment in desert lizards.
The conditions:

I.	Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
II.	Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
III.	Bask in the sun when the temperature is low
IV.	Insulating body due to the thick fatty dermis

1.	(I) and (III)	2.	(II) and (IV)
3.	(I) and (II)	4.	(III) and (IV)

89.

The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in number during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

1.	The population of its predators increases enormously
2.	S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
3.	The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
4.	Its population growth curve is of J-type

90. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source:

(a)
(b)

	Molecule	Source	Use
1.	(a) Cocaine	Erythroxylum coca	Accelerates the transport of dopamine
2.	(b) Heroin	Cannabis Sativa	Depressant and slows down body functions
3.	(b) Cannabinoid	Atropa belladonna	Produces hallucinations
4.	(a) Morphine	Papaver somniferum	Sedative and painkiller

91.

The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white because of:

1.	Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
2.	Insertional inactivation of beta-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
3.	Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
4.	Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

92.

Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plants whose one flowering branch is shown below?

1.	Hallucinogen	2.	Depressant
3.	Stimulant	4.	Pain-Killer

93. Antivenom injection contains performed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:

1.	harvested antibodies	2.	gamma globulin
3.	attenuated pathogens	4.	activated pathogens

94.

Study the four statements (a-d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

(a)	A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers
(b)	Predator starfish pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates
(c)	Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species
(d)	Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic disorders

The two correct statements are:

1.	(c) and (d)	2.	(a) and (d)
3.	(a) and (b)	4.	(b) and (c)

95.

Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using microbes?
1. Trichoderma sp. against certain plant pathogens
2. Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica
3. Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield
4. Ladybird beetle against aphids in mustard

96.

The common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields is:

1.	Frankia	2.	Rhizobium
3.	Azospirillum	4.	Oscillatoria

97.

Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

1.	HIV is an enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase
2.	HIV is an enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase
3.	HIV is an unenveloped retrovirus
4.	HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

98.

Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?

1.	Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
2.	Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage
3.	Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for superovulation
4.	Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time

99. Which one of the following is categorized as a parasite in a true sense?

1.	Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother
2.	Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair
3.	The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in a crow's nest
4.	The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans

100.

Select the incorrect statement:

1.	Inbreeding helps in the accumulation of superior genes and the elimination of undesirable genes
2.	Inbreeding increases homozygosity
3.	Inbreeding is essential to evolve pure lines in any animal
4.	Inbreeding selects harmful recessive genes that reduce fertility and productivity

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